I hope you don't think this is an annoying question, I have been through a great number of the previous postings on this subject before asking this question and while there was some overlap I'd really like some specific advice on the issue.
On Friday afternoon I had sex with my boyfriend - he gave me oral sex but I did NOT give him oral sex. We then had intercourse (without a condom as I am on the pill and we were both thoroughly tested before we slept together for the first time a year ago). The point I started to freak out was on saturday morning when I noticed that what I had thought looked like a spot on my lower chin was looking more like a cold sore (I have had cold sores (HSV 1) since I was a child, as has my partner, so this is not a concern - we always refrain from any sexual activity including kissing when one of us has one. However, every time previously I have gotten them on my bottom lip, never on my chin, which is why I think I did not recognise the symptoms properly). Anyway, my question is this - while I'm pretty sure he didn't directly kiss my chin (!), there would obviously have been some skin to skin contact with the area, after which he gave me oral sex - so could he have transmitted my oral HSV 1 to me genitally - and furthermore then have been infected genitally himself when we then had intercourse. Again, the contact with his chin and my genitals was probably negligible but I am aware the virus is highly infectious, and usually am careful about washing hands etc if I have touched a sore at all.
I'm sorry if this seems hysterical, I've just been having a bit of a meltdown all weekend about it. I'm going to the clinic tomorrow to talk to someone, and I imagine you might be unable to give a definite answer unless I have any symptoms (which I do not, but it's only been two days), but I just needed to do something proactive about this as it's been churning through my brain for 48 hours.
Many thanks.