Hi Doc. Thank you for all you do. I am a 33 yr old male, heterosexual. On 27 September I had received unprotected oral sex followed by protected vaginal intercourse. The intercourse was quite lubricated for lack of better words. Anyway, I did not see any holes in the condom after the fact, but later developed NSU not caused by chlamydia (all tested negative). Since that made me scared about HIV, I instantly thought that maybe with the extraordinary amount of fluids that perhaps I had gotten some of her secretions on me while taking off the condom.
Also, following my panic of possible HIV exposure, I purchased a DNA by PCR test for HIV with an ELISA (3rd generation) 25 days post exposure. Both were non-reactive and I was told I am good to go. I asked my possible exposure if she'd be willing to get tested to calm my nerves, she did. I got her the same package I got. Her ELISA was negative, but her DNA by PCR was indeterminate. Since that result was revealed, the establishment that did it offered me to redo it. Instead of asking her to do it again, I just did another myself 43 days (6 weeks) post possible exposure. Again, both the DNA PCR and ELISA were non-reactive or negative. So, my question for you is in your opinion, do I possess conclusive results of my HIV status? And, if possible, can you shed some light on the DNA PCR test accuracy? I am told that the reason it is not frequently offered is due to the high cost and high risk of false positive results, but I wanted to get an expert opinion on that if you would?
To recap, my questions are:
1) Risk of HIV exposure while taking condom off - excessive female secretions?
2) DNA by PCR and ELISA negative results at 43 days (6 weeks) conclusive?
3) DNA by PCR test accuracy (two negatives, one at 25 and the other at 43 days post possible exposure)?
4) Lastly, just like to know what my overall risk is in the first place? Would my testing be just as accurate if my experience was unprotected all the way around?