Drs, would please review (i) a rash description (from 2000) and (ii) a set of test results (from 2009)?
Rash: Sept 2000, received oral sex. Rash occurred about 7 to 10 days after.
Started with red bump on the inner aspect of labia majora, next to the hair. Bump had a 'whitehead' (was pimple-like) which, when burst, gave out watery pus then formed a shallow 'crater'/ ulcer(?).
Started acyclovir 400mg 5x day within 24 hours.
Next few days, several other bumps came up in the pubic hair (bilaterally) which progressed to be small sores.
One 'lesion' occurred on side of the clitoral hood, but none on inner or outer surfaces of labia minora that I recall.
Some new lesions occurred while I was taking the antivirals.
Had tender lymph nodes in my groin.
Rash took 3 weeks to heal.
My ‘partner’ was promiscuous man with poor oral hygiene (brown dirty teeth around the gums). It was NOT my wish to receive oral that night and I was too shy to go to a GP for help.
Was symptom free for 9 years (and no other sex in that time), then started to get some tingling, prickling and stinging in my genital region.
Went to Dr, she ordered;
HSV1&2 IgG tests; both -ve.
Western Blot for HSV1 (-ve) and another IgG test for HSV2, also -ve (5 weeks after first tests).
HSV PCR from swabs of stinging labia minor (3 times over several months), all -ve.
The stinging labia episodes (only ever right sided) last for a few days (3 to 10) every 3 to 4 weeks. I haven’t seen any obvious lesions on labia minor. Dr Hook previously said not due to HSV, but… I’ve seen several Drs since then and none have been able to give me a plausible alternative diagnosis.
So, rash in 2000 seemed like HSV, but 2009 serology suggests otherwise.
1. Does the rash or the serology win?
2. Could mouth bacteria or any other oral pathogens have caused the rash I described?
I'd really like to know whether I did or did not get HSV that night in 2000. Can I ever really know?