What is "so confusing"? My answers seem pretty clear to me. Did you read my reply carefully? Did you follow my advice about looking into the chronic pelvic pain syndrome?
The only STD that conceivably you could have that that would be harmful is gonorrhea and the chance of that is virtually zero. There is no chlamydia risk from oral sex; NGU from oral sex has no complications in men and rarely a health risk for female partners; and syphilis and herpes could not be transmitted only 12 hours after expoisure. So no worries for your wife's health and no chance you have been reinfected from her. But if you want still extra reassurance, and your wife agrees, she could see her health care provider for testing.
It is time to let this go. There is simply no STD issue here and no health implications of any kind from your sexual indiscretion and probably there never was. Discuss any additional questions with your urologist; I won't have any more comments or advice.
Thank you doctor, I am so confused...
I had sex with my wife about 12 hours after the SW episode and before the treatment, so would it be possible that I infected her and me getting re-infected after terminating treatment ? I know infection from a single episode are low odds (15-20%) and that I sound paranoid, but this could mean infection after the antibiotics ?
What should I do with the Balanitis ? Cicalfate helps but does not totally clear it.
The 14 day Doxicicline was to avoid Syphillis... I know, very rare for receptive oral...
Thank you
Wow -- you have overreacted in a big way. Oral sex is low risk, and anything you might have caught would have caused symptoms; treatment simply on the basis of such an exposure is unwarranted. Further, you apparently treated yourself without medical advice, pretty much always a mistake. And to the extent doxycycline is used for some STDs, you took it for twice the necessary duration. But at least you took the right drugs, which would have aborted gonorrhea, nongonoccal urethritis (NGU), and syphilis. Of course no effect on herpes, which is another (very unlikely) outcome from the oral sex event.
Next issue, your testiular aching: No STD causes such a symptom, unless there is overt epididymitis -- and in that case it would not have been just aching, but one testicle (not both) would have been markedly swollen and acutely tender to touch. Moreover, nany STDs that could possible have caused epididymitis would have been aborted or prevented by the antibiotics. This symptom is entirely unrleated to your sexual indiscretion. (Well, biologically unrelated. But maybe related to anxiety over the event. So your urologist's opinion you had no infection was the same as mine -- and just as I reached that conclusion without examining you, so did he.
Now the balanitis: A good bet is that it's due to overgrowth of yeast or other fungus, the direct result of your overly intensive and unnecessary antibiotic therapy.
As for gonorrhea and NGU, there no chance you are currently infected with either in view of the antibiotic treatment.
I suggest you look on the web for "chronic pelvic pain syndrome". Try googling that term and then start your reading with the excellent Wikipedia article and the info you will find from the Stanford University Dept of Urology. I think you'll see parallels with your symptoms. As you will see, CPPS used to be considered a form of non-infectious prostatitis, but the prostate may not be involved at all. Your urologist apparently is thinking along the same lines, judging by his recomendation of an ultrasound (probably of your prostate) and a PSA test.
At this point, you can be pretty sure you have nothing (and never did) that could possibly harm you or your wife. But if your discomfort continues, follow through on your plan to seek additional medical care when you are able to do so. But don't worry about the long term. There are no serious health issues here.
Regards-- HHH, MD