Welcome to the Forum. I will try to help. Your story is a bit hard to follow but, as I understand it, you acquired gonorrhea of the penis from a sexual encounter outside of your marriage and were treated with a shot, 4 pills and then 10 days of doxycycline. In the interval between the encounter in which you caught gonorrhea and the time you were treated you had both vaginal and received oral sex form your wife. She has been receiving treatment with levaquin but, to your knowledge, was not tested for gonorrhea (the routine throat culture would not detect gonorrhea) and does not know she was exposed.
If this summary is correct, I would be a bit concerned. Gonorrhea of both the genital tract and the throat is typically asymptomatic in women so your wife could have been exposed. Levaquin is effective for about 90% of gonorrhea infections but not all and, for that reason, is no longer recommended for gonorrhea. My advice would be that, rather than take chances that she was cured by the levaquin, your wife needs to at least be tested for gonorrhea at both the throat and the cervix (genital tract) and treated for exposure, probably with the same medicines your received which, I suspect, were ceftriaxone (the shot) flagyl (the 4 pills) and doxycycline.
I hope this helps. EWH
1. Perhaps. Levaquin is not particularly good for gonorrhea of the throat.
2. No, as I said, gonorrhea can be present in the throat without symptoms.
It sounds like you are trying to rationalize not telling your wife that she has been exposed to gonorrhea. Do you really want to take the chance? EWH
Two questions: 1) If my wife is amoung the 90% who do NOT have Leviquin resistant gonorrhoeae, is 10 days of Leviquin enough to cure it without a shot or other meds? 2) She was symptomatic with 2 red bumps with white centers but now they are gone, does this mean she is likely cured and does NOT have the drug resistant strain?