To summarize, you had a single experience with a partner in which she masturbated your and then performed oral sex on you, using a condom. Other than this and the fact that you had a healing lesion on your groin area, most of the questions are built around "what if" scenarios. To address your questions:
1. If the condom was not latex, does this change your risk of getting STD or HIV. Perhaps but not much. To start with, the oral exposure was low risk - you do not know that she was infected and in fact, statistically is unlikely to have been. the risk of HIV acquisition through unprotected oral sex from an infected partner is less than 1 in 10,000 - your odds are far, far lower. As far as bacterial STDs are concerned, again, with unprotected sex, the major risk are for NGU (nongonococcal urethritis) or gonorrhea. A non-latex condom would eliminate your risk for gonorrhea and NGU and reduce but not eliminate your risk for HIV (turns out there are microscopic "pores" in animal membrane condoms which prevent passage of bacteria but don't completely keep viruses from passing).
2. Did the sore in your groin increase you risk of acquiring infection. simple answer- NO!
3. Could she have infected you (intentionally or otherwise) by transfer of secretions to your genitals using her hands - again NO.
Finally, let me comment that we reserve the right to delete questions which have no educational value to other readers or are unrealistic. Your questions qualify but I decided to provide you with an answer. There will be no follow-up discussion however and additional "what if" questions will be deleted. Your risk from the exposures you describe is essentially zero. You do not need further testing of any sort. However, a piece of advice- clearly this event has generated unreasonable concerns and anxieties for you. I strongly advise you not to engage in such experiences again as, in my opinion, the psychological trauma of the event far exceeds any benefit you could get from such and encounter. EWH
Thank you for your time and apologies for causing troubles.
This thread is over. The site is topic specific and not for our clients to ask every question which might occur to them about STDs. All of these questions have been answered on other,prior threads. Use the MedHelp search function or start another thread (realizing that you are at risk for having that deleted since they questions have been asked (many times) before. EWH
The reason why I am asking this question is because I am planning to get married next year and I don't want my future baby to get affected by this..
And if I am infectious, can oral sex wihout condom with my future wife be at risk?
Thank you for your time doctor..
Thank you doctor..Just wanted to clarify few things..
You are telling me that I could be spreading virus to partners even without having outbreaks during sexual acts? Or I could not be spreading virus during sexual act as long as I don't have any out breaks..Lastly, you have mentioned that there is increased risk of getting HIV if you were tested postive for HSV-2. From what I have asked in previous thread of oral sex/masturbation, there is no need to worry about getting infected with HIV..correct?
I am sorry if I am wasting your time but I could not fully understand your comments.
Thank you doctor.
CJ36
Your positive blood test, if it was a reliable type specific test such as the HerpeSelect, means that you have HSV-2. If you have known this for a year and not noted outbreaks, you are unlikely to have them in the future. That said, you are still almost assured of having asymptomatic shedding of the virus which you could transmitted to sexual partners. Having a positive tests for HSV-2 is associated with increased risk of getting HIV., IF YOU ARE EXPOSED (this is unlikely) There is not data to suggest your risk for other STDs in increased. EWH
Thank you so much for responding to my questions and for your help.
I will take your adivise and will not engage in such experience anymore.
Doctor, I have another question that I wanted to ask you.
About one year ago, I was tested for Herpes type 1 and type 2 through blood work and results were postive for both.
I have had cold sores around my lips when I am extremely tired, maybe once a year, but I have had no out breaks of any kind from my genital area in my life.
My doctor said I don't need to worry about having tested postive for herpes type 2 and he said that he can't conclude that I'll have outbreaks in my genital area in the future.
If so, what does it mean to be postive for herpes type 2 through blood work?
Does it mean that I am going to have outbreaks and have symptoms in some point of my life? Does it mean that I am a herpre type 2 patient?
Is being postive for herpes type 2 through blood test increase chances of getting STDs when having sex with infected persons?