I am a 44-year-old female. Last year, while under a great deal of physical and emotional stress, I had right-sided back and shoulder pain, which I initially attributed to a pulled muscle. I then developed some lesions over the area. The dermatologist swabbed a few of the lesions and sent for DFA, although he felt it was most likely shingles (I had had chicken pox some years earlier, as an adult). The DFA results showed positive for HSV-1. I have never had a cold sore nor genital lesions, but I realize that many people with herpes simplex infections are asymptomatic. Still, I was surprised, since the process had walked and quacked like shingles.
A month ago I discovered that my partner had been having two long-term affairs with other women. I went for testing and the (blood test) results showed that I am HIV-1 and HIV-2 AB negative, hepatitis C negative, and the RPR was nonreactive. HSV AB IgM was not detected, HSV-1 IgG was nonreactive (0.03, index <0.90), and HSV-2 was nonreactive (0.08, index <0.90).
My question is: Why would the swabbed lesion sent for DFA show positive for HSV-1 and my blood work show no HSV antibodies? I thought DFA was very accurate. Is it possible for VZV to be mistaken for HSV? Do I need to have further testing? If so, what kind?
Thanks for your help.