I'm a 25 year old male. I had sex with a girl who I now know gave me chlamydia. 3-4 days later I had unprotected sex with an old partner. At the time of this contact, I had absolutely no symptoms. The previous girl called and told me she had chlamydia, so I got tested and had it. What are the odds I passes chlamydia 3-4 days after contracting while being totally asymptomatic? I told my nurse this same scenario and he said it was unlikely I passed it on but entirely possible. What do you think doc?
I disagree with the nurse and would urge you to inform your second partner that you recently found out that you had chlamydia and that you may have exposed here to it. To do otherwise would put her at risk for both complications and transmission to others. Most chlamydial infections are asymptomatic. There is about a 1 in 4 chance that you passed you infection on to your partner with a single episode of unprotected sex. With a second exposure the risk goes up to 50%. Far too high to take chances. Please tell her as soon as possible. EWH
One more thing. I was asymptomic when I slept with the old partner but 4 days later, by the time I went and got tested I definetly had symptoms. So being that I didn't have symptoms yet, is the chance less? Also how long after contraction does chlamydia become contagious? Immediately/ 5 days? The old partner is on vacation so I don't want to call and ruin it
Hello doc. I never told the partner I thought I could have exposed to chlamydia. She is now my exclusive partner and roomate. As I said I contracted chlamydia, didn't know it and slept with an old girlfriend 4 days later while totally asymptomatic. 4 days later i began having symptoms and got a call from the girl who gave it to me saying I was exposed. I got treated and didn't tell the girl I could have exposed.
She got back from vacation and moved in with me. We've been sleeping together since then and I don't have any symptoms like I did b4. To my question: would I develope symptoms again, as it would be the exact same infection I had 3 weeks prior?
I know I should have told her, and I still will if nevessary. But since I had symptoms before wouldn't I get them again?
The last thing I want to do is put her health in jeopardy. I felt safe, as I got treated. When I could have exposed her it was only 3 days after I contracted it. So, when she came back from vacation fine, I stiffled my concern.
Truth be told she's my ex-fiancé and telling her this is tough. I got tested Friday again. I should have if she has it considering the extent of chlamydias attractability?
Your are rationalizing things. I have told you my outlook on things. I have nothing more to say and will end this thread now. I am sure if you ask enough people you can find someone who will endorse the path you seem committed to. EWH
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