Hi,
I'll try and make this story short. About 4 years ago, I had protected sex, and then unprotected oral (receiving) from an escort. Furthermore, about 3 times in the last 2 years I went and got a massage with a happy ending (hand to genital only). Three days after my visit to the massage parlour, my wife and I had sex. Two days later, my wife had a burning sensation in the genital area, and then after a week after it began, she saw her doctor. At the doctor, my wife told her she had something similar happen about 10 years ago, and they checked for Herpes then, but came back negative (which apparently isn't uncommon if you wait too long). The new doctor said it is probably Herpes, and she'll test for it.
Now, here's my question, since my wife has assumed nobody has ever touched me since we've been together, and therefore could not be ANY STD, do you think her doctor might have jumped on the Herpes conclusion without considering any other STD? Or, as I am hoping, her doctor would have considered all possible infections.
I guess time will tell when the results come back, but I'd like to know your opinion.
Thanks