This doesn't change my opinion and advice above. I understood the timing and that she had an overt herpes outbreak. My best guess is that she was not shedding virus 2 days earlier, but that's all it is -- a guess.
And Dr H just wanted to follow up on this, which you may have missed:
And just to clarify, 2 days after our encounter she had an outbreak, period--as in a visible, present cold sore. Not sure if that changes anything, I'm assuming not. Normally she said that the actual emergence of her cold sores is proceeded by a day or so of 'knowing', somehow, that one is coming, but in this case it was more sudden--just an actual cold sore arriving, unexpectedly.
Thank you!
Excellent question. For HSV-2 genital infection, the viral load -- i.e. the amount of virus present -- tends to be lower in asymptomatic gentshedding than during overt herpes outbreaks. I do not know if this has been studied for oral HSV-1. All things considered, the transmission risk probably is lower from asymptomatic shedding than it is during overt oral herpes outbreaks.
And just to clarify, 2 days after our encounter she had an outbreak, period--as in a visible, present cold sore. Not sure if that changes anything, I'm assuming not. Normally she said that the actual emergence of her cold sores is proceeded by a day or so of 'knowing', somehow, that one is coming, but in this case it was more sudden--just an actual cold sore arriving, unexpectedly.
That's truly all from me!
Thanks doctor, you've addressed exactly what I was asking about, I appreciate it.
One more tangential question, if you don't mind...in looking this up I found some stats about the percentage of days per year on which people with various forms of HSV1/2 are asymptomatically shedding the virus. When this is the case, is the viral load being shed just the same as when someone has an active outbreak? Or would it be filed under the 'chance of transmission, but less chance than when physical symptoms are present' category?
Thanks!
Welcome to the forum.
If I correctly understand, your partner, who has oral herpes, performed unprotected oral sex on you and then had onset of an outbreak about 2 days later. The concern is that she might have been shedding HSV-1 at the time of the exposure.
Most likely, she was not infectious at the time of the exposure, but I cannot say the risk was zero. However, most cases of new genital herpes (whether HSV-1 or HSV-2) start to cause symptoms in 2-5 days -- so you are exaclty right: with no symptoms at 8 days, you can be pretty sure you weren't infected. If you remain symptom-free at 2 weeks and beyond, you can be confident you weren't infected.
I hope this has helped. Best wishes-- HHH, MD