About a week ago, I performed unprotected oral sex on an 28 year old african american male who, when asked directly, adamantly asserted that he got tested quarterly, and at last test were completely std free. I had already begun to come down with a cough, which I think may have been upper respiratory infection related, but I'm not sure. The day after this incident, I began taking Claratin with pseudoephedrine for the cough and some sinus issues.
A couple days ago (4/5 days after exposure), returned to my job, which is in a very moldy/mildewy building. I came down with a moderate sore throat, which has lingered for now a couple more days. A friend, who is a doctor (I didn't tell the whole story) said it looked like I had pharyngitis, and thought, since I had the cough and was around the allergens, that it would likely clear sooner or later, dismissed strep, and didn't even think about gonorrhea. I did not have swollen glands, but I did have whitish bumps on my tonsils, a bit of drainage from sinuses, and a sore throat.
My questions are:
1. Based on this, what is my likelihood of having Pharyngeal Gonorrhea? (or, "is the sore throat possibly Pharyngeal Gonorrhea?)
2. Even if the person is showing no signs of infection, what is the rough rate of transmission from that activity assuming they were positive with either gonorrhea or chlamydia?
2. Will a Nucleic Acid Amplification Test pick up Pharyngeal Gonorrhea (and Chlamydia if I caught it too, a week ago)? These are available at an easy-to-access STD testing place, and I'd rather go there than to a doctor and get the culture test done, but I'm unsure as to which is more accurate (specifically because I only would have gonorrhea in the throat, and while NAAT's seem well suited for genital infection, I can't tell how well they work for the throat)