Hi Doctor, I wanted to ask a follow up question on my situation. The pimples I got on March 1st almost entirely cleared about a week ago, leaving some redness but 3 days ago I got another large pimple right at the border of where the pubic hair meets the base of the pennis. It's the same location where one of the original pimples were. It was very itchy but I resisted the itch and looking closely I saw 4-5 very small blisters on top of the hair follicles on the pimple. To me this sort of resembles a herpes infection based on the pictures that I have seen online. I will do another blood test in the next few weeks and I appreciate any feedback you can give me on this news. Sorry for the trouble.
Thank you
I don't know where you read that herpes can cause widespread itching, but it's nonsense. Herpes does no such thing.
Hi Doctor. Since my last post the sores/pimples in my groin have gone away but now I have an annoying itch all over my body. There are no outbreaks or redness anywhere but I keep wanting to itch at random times during the day and night at random places on my body (mainly legs though). The itch is not unbearable it's just very annoying. I read some stuff online that suggested it might be related to genital HSV1 or 2 and it made me question whether the HSV2 swab was a false negative.... I appreciate your feedback.
Thank you
If the doctor you saw was an STD expert and suspected herpes, that possibility has to be taken seriously. However, I still am inclined to doubt it.
You are correct that the interval could be consistent with initial herpes. However, the location of your lesions remains atypical. Also, most tests of lesions for HSV would pick up HSV-1, even if only HSV-2 testing was requested. But other factors also argue strongly against HSV-1, especially the positive HSV-1 antibody test. As already discussed, it's too early for that test to be so strongly positive.
In any case, you should not expect definitive answers on this forum. We can only provide general guidance.
Thank you for the response,
You said the symptoms started too late but if I was sexually active Feb 8-28, 2013 and the oubreak started March 2nd, 2013, isn't that recent to the exposure?
The "fingerstick" blood results looked for HSV-2 immunoassay antibody gG-2 and they were negative. To recap, the blood drawn from my arm showed HSV2 IGG negative and HSV1 IGG>5.
The swab test(pubic area sores) was done by labcorp and I was told it only tested for HSV-2, that's the reasons I am now worried of the possibility of genital HSV-1.
The STD clinic doctor based his diagnosis on the swollen lymph node on the right of my groin, the pimples/sores in the pubic area and the fact that I recently had sex with someone who had herpes. I am not certain whether she has genital hsv 1 or 2 or both.
I would really like to find out if the HSV1 I have is oral or genital for a peace of mind and to be cautious. Is there any way of clarifying this? Thank you for the response.
Welcome to the forum. Thanks for your question.
First, you are not at very high risk for having genital herpes. In monogamous couples in which one partner has genital HSV-2, the average chance of transmission to the other partner is around once for every 1,000 episodes of unprotected vaginal sex. So with only a few sexual exposures, the chance you were infected is low.
Second, the symptoms you describe clearly were not due to herpes. The location is wrong (initial herpes generally does not involve the pubic area); and they started too late, since initial herpes typically causes symptoms within a few days of exposure.
Having said all that, I am quite confused by your first test results and your doctor's diagnosis. What led him to conclude you have genital HSV-1? Also, I have never heard of a fingerstick blood test that uses UV light. What country are you in? Can you ask your doctor's office for more details about the test, including its trade name?
Finally, you are correct that your positive IgG blood test for HSV-1 almost certainly indicates an infection that was present for at least several weeks before the test was done, i.e. before your sexual relationship in February. Also, it is unlikely you acquired genital HSV-1 by vaginal sex -- especially since your partner apparently had HSV-2.
Presumably the "swab test" was from your pubic area sores -- yes? For the reasons above, I'm not surprised it was negative for HSV-2. Probably it also negative for HSV-1 -- is that right?
In summary, I suspect you have had HSV-1 a long time, perhaps since childhood; most likely it goes back to your childhood and probably is an oral infection, not genital. You are at low risk for HSV-2. Regardless of your test results so far, I doubt your pubic area sores were due to herpes. However, if you can fill in more details about the specific tests that have been done, perhaps I will have additional thoughts about it.
Best wishes-- HHH, MD
Also, I did some research and I found that IGG levels are not present until 4-8 weeks after exposure so if my HSV 1 IGG came out > 5 does that indicate that I had that prior to this infection? I was sexually active with her between Feb 8-28 and the sores/pimples appeared on march 2nd (also I only remember having one small pimple/sore in the corner of my mouth once in my life) and if so isn't it harder to get it transfered to the genital area if you already have the oral? Also the HSV 2 test swab was done a week after the sores appeared so can it be inaccurate? What should I do at this point? I really want to know if I have hsv 2 or not and whether the HSV 1 I have is genital or oral and when did I get it?........I really appriciate the help doctor.