This is a difficult situation and we need good answers not found elsewhere Doctor.
My wife and I separated a year ago. We gave each other permission to date and even sleep with others. My wife became sexually active with a man in June. In mid July she had Chlamydia and had not been with any other partner sexually since me 7 months earlier. He denied having any STD and said that other than my wife, he had not had sex in vaginal or oral form in years, he said 6, but let's say even a couple of years. My wife gets treated with antibotics and is well. My wife and I had considered reconciling and we slept together and I got NGU from her the day before she showed signs of having Chlamydia from the other man. I know I got an NGU because I was tested and treated at the health department.
Then, in the last part of September or early October she is sexual again with this same man. This time, she and I had not had sex again until she was being treated with antibotics again.
It was not wise but she and I had intercourse the day after she started treatment and I ended up again with an NGU from my wife. I got tested and treated again at the health department.
I said all of this to come to the specific questions so you would have time frames in your mind as you answer them. I had inquired of the std nurse the second time about liklihood of his having been faithful to my wife while they dated these months and still giving her an std. I specifically asked about the amount of time NGU lives in a man's body still being able to give an std to a woman. She said that it would always live in his body until treated, but it would probably only be transmittable to a partner for up to 9mos or a year at the most. She said as the 9mos or year drew closer the chances of transmission would lessen not being as strong a risk.
My wife and I probably will not reconcile. However this man is having a benefit of doubt and has said things like maybe got it eating something or I have no idea where it came from, even swearing he has not had oral performed on him or sexual contact with any other woman while with my wife. He still insists that he didn't have sex for a long time before meeting her as well.
How long could he transmit this to my wife after getting it Doctor? The nurse sumized that the second time she caught it suggests he had been with another woman between the months she got the first one form him and contracted the second one. Was that a medically speaking pretty safe assumption on her part?
The other part of the question is about how common truly are non sexual contractions of NGU for a male? He has had no catherizations or any medical procedures I saw mentioned which sometimes cause non sexual cases of it. I did see that being with a partner with an std and even only orally with that partner could have given him his NGU which gave my wife chlamydia.
Those 2 questions being clearly answered will be appreciated. How'd he get this? and how long could he give it?
I'm sorry, but you present too complex and speculative scenario to figure out who was infected first, with what, or by whom. I'm not going to try to speculate. When people with questions like this come to me in the clinic, I say the same thing: you have to make too many suppositions and assumptions to answer, about who is or isn't telling the truth, about other un-acknowledged partners, and so on. I don't know who had chlamydia, who had NGU due to other causes, or how and where these were transmitted and I won't try to guess--and suggest that you don't either.
Having said all that, I will point out that NGU can be caused entirely normal oral bacteria transmitted during oral sex. It is uncommon that NGU is ever non-sexually acquired, but this is an area of medical uncertainty without clear answers.
Sorry I can't answer your questions with greater clarity. But in all honest, I don't see that it matters much.
I had no NGU before being with my wife who had only been with the other man. She showed Chlamydia the day after being with me. There is no doubt the Chlamydia was given to her by the man she had been with 2 weeks prior. That fits with the symptom time tables. What we as two people who have been exposed to STDs twice now want to know is it is possible that he has not had sex as he claims for all those years and given my wife what he did? The second time he gave it to her I had not been with her since she was treated from the first case of Chlamydia and he was the only one she had been with. That means her second and first cases came from a guy who swears he hasn't fooled around while liking her. Medically speaking does his story of no sex for years prior to meeting her really add up? Thanks :) I just don't want my former wife to be blind about this. I still care for her health very much so.
I'm new and didn't address the question to you properly before Dr.. Please answer if it is a reasonable excuse this man is giving saying he had not had sex in ANY form other than with my wife in the past 6 years and that he got NGU eating something or he doesn't know from where. My wife and I know we were each STD free before he entered the senario. The question of how long NGU can be passed from a male tyo a female to give her Chlamydia was not answered. Please tell the forum the transmission period for NGU to be passed. Thank you and I understand this is complicated, but there was no presence of STDs in my wife or me before this man.
Unfortunately, not enough is known about nonchlamydial NGU to clearly answer your question. Even the most complete testing for known STDs does not mean someone cannot have or transmit NGU, since the cause of the infection is unknown in 30-50% of cases. This uncertainty is one of the things that leads infected persons, an often their health care providers, to believe or assert that there are non-sexual causes, but that is highly unlikely; and I'm sure nobody gets NGU from eating something: all cases are sexually acquired. But that doesn't ncessarily mean there is a health problem of importance in the woman who was the source of his infection, such as your wife; or that she has something that would harm you. For example, as noted in my original response, entirely normal oral bacteria probably cause some cases of NGU in men. And even some vaginal organisms may cause inflammation when transmitted to the urethra of some men (e.g., your wife's other partner) but not others (e.g., you).
And important thing, though, is that nonchlamydial NGU most likely is entirely harmless. It has never been linked with bad outcomes in either infected men or their sex partners. That doesn't prove there are not such problems (absence of proof is not proof of absence). However, the odds of any serious oucome are low. I suggest this not be a factor at all in your decsions about sex with your wife or your future relationship with her.
hello.....I've been diagnosed with ngu 3 days ago and doctor gave me some antibiotic one time use only very sensitive he told me and told me no drugs nor alchohol and no sex for 7 days....my question is at the time when I was tested I didnt had any symptoms but today which is 3 days later I had a discharge only once soo far i dont have burning while urinating or any other sympthoms soo is that normal to have symptoms after taking antibiotic?
and 2 more short questions:1. can I kiss french my girlfriend she is clean I got it from somebody else?
2.can I masturbate i know that I cant have sex for 7 days but can I masturbate? is it gonna affect the treatment?
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