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Dear Dr.,
I am a hetro male who was just in a 10 year relationship which just ended that I know to be faithful.  2.5 yrs ago my partner was diagnosed with (HVP) gential warts which were overt.   She was treated medically and has never had anymore symptoms.  I appeared to be asymptomatic, never having developed anything. We did not always use condoms.  

My Questions:
1. What are the chances I may still be infected?
2. Because her outbreak took so long to manifest itself, does that it will be the same for me?  Will it be harder for me to clear myself because of the time it took her to develop them?
3. I read that most infections leave the body in 6-24 months? I know sex doesn't stop the clearence process, but should I wait a time for a new partner? I realize immunity between partners means we cannot reinfect each other, but does mean the infection stays with us and we can infect others?
4. At this point, what are the chances that if I exposed a new partner with unprotected sex, that would develop any infection?  Even without me having overt warts?

Thanks
3 Responses
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300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
1.  See above.  I see no reason for you to inform fture partners about your possible infection.

2.  Not sure I follow this question. It seems like a "what if"question which if it si, we don't address here. EWH
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Thank You for you prompt response. Two follow up Questions:
1. In the past, on this forum, it said to wait approx. 6-12 months for symptoms and if the don't return, there is no need to inform future partners. I know this "policy" is a bit different after having sex with someone with overt warts. How does this affect me who never had symptoms?
2. If I had become immune or my immunity cleared my partners strain, and partners can't reinfect each other, did the sex between me and my partner keep the infection, lack of a better term, "infectious" so as to not affect me or my partner but someone else? Or is it once you're immune or cleared, the body keep the strain below infectious levels?

That's it.. Thanks.

Helpful - 0
300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to our Forum.  I'll address your questions which are familiar ones.  In doing so, I'd like to suggest a need for you to adjust your perspective.  If your partner of ten years had HPV, so do you, or at least you have at some time in the past.  This should not concern you as over 85% of adults, have, had or will have HPV at some point.  Most such infections are asymptomatic and, as you point out, most HPV infections resolve on their own without therapy.  Further and most importantly, please understand that both because they are so common, as well as because their serious consequences (cancer) are so rare and have such good measures for detection and early treatment (Pap smears), that you have had the exposures you describe should in no way hinder or impede your future sexual relationships.  To do otherwise is simply not realistic.  My advice is not to worry and to move forward in new relationships without concern that your prior partner had HPV.  That is not to say that condoms are not a good idea for any new relationship, they are, but because of other "stealth" STIs such as chlamydia, not because of HPV.

In answer to your specific questions.
1.  See above.  It would be surprising if you were not infected.  just about everyone is or has been.

2.  No, not necessarily on both counts.  Typically genital warts become apparent about 4-6 months following exposure.  These things are variable however.

3. Again, see above.  No reason to wait to enter new relationships.

4.  This is an unanswerable question.  You do not know if you are infected, if your future partner is or has been infected, or if she has had the HPV vaccine.  More importantly, as mentioned above, this really is not something for you to worry about.

I hope these comments are helpful.  I would not worry. EWH
Helpful - 0

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