You are playing games trying to figure out if your discharge represents infection or not. I cannot answer that. I suggest you re-read my earlier responses and decide whther you should be tested or not.
As for a UTI - these are very uncommon in men under age 40 and when men are told the have a UTI, they more often have STD, often NGU.
This will end this discussion. Further questions will be deleted without comment. EWH
And by "thick" discharge because of an STD, I mean, should it be noticeable even in white underwears? And should it be "frequent"?
Thanks!
If it is indeed an STD (Chlamydia or NGU), should the discharge be "thick"? Because just recently, I experienced a painful urination and I'm not sure if it's just UTI or an STD symptom. My other question is: if the UTI result came back positive, does it mean that it's just UTI, and NOT an STD?
I wish I could tell you if this is normal pre-ejaculatory fluid or not but I cannot. Your risk was, as I mentioned, low risk. IOdds of having acquired an STD from the expsoure you describe are very, very low and therefore, if you didn't feel the need to be evaluated before, you need not now. I am not trying to be evasive on this, just to provide the facts. I hope this helps. EWH
BTW, the "discharge" only happened two days after my recent exposure. I didn't experience it during the days between the May 2008 exposure and the recent.
Maybe I just became too paranoid that I mistakenly identified a normal pre-seminal fluid as an abnormal discharge? What do you think?
It only happened twice, and someone told me that if it is indeed an STD, it should have happened many times, and the discharge must be "thick". Is it true?
And when I notice it, it's usually at night, if that can help.
Also, how will I know if it was just a pre-seminal fluid or an abnormal discharge? It "looked" like the normal pre-seminal fluid because it's not that "thick" and its colored white, but I want to hear it from you.
Thanks for your response.
So far, this has only been my exposure this year.
Last June 2007, I had protected anal sex and last May 2008, I gave a guy an oral sex.
Just December last year, I got tested for HIV and Syphilis - all results came back negative (thankfully), but I did not get tested for gonorrhea and chlamydia because I didn't experience any symptom since that exposure last May 2008.
Doctor, based on my input, do you think I'm now STD-free? I don't want to get tested, if possible, because testing here in the Philippines is really expensive and STD's here are really rare so I don't want to take the risk.
The encounter you describe is not one that would put you at risk for an STD causing urethral discharge. Masturbation, and this is what you describe does not do this, penetrative sex does. on the other hand, if you have had other exposures, this may reflect an infection and warrant evaluation.
On to your questions:
1. The color of an STD-related discharge can vary. While gonorrhea is typically yellow and pus-like and NGU tends to be clear, there are exceptions and to try to assess the presence of an STD based on color will often be wrong. If you are concerned, you should seek evaluation for gonorrhea, chlamydia and NGU. These however are unlikely from the exposure you describe.
2. No you can have only discharge without pain on urination and still have a STD.
3. See above, form what you describe, probably not from that encounter.
4. No
5. Not a bad idea if you have not been in the past year, as screening if for no other reason.
6. HIV should not be a concern from this exposure either.
EWH
I heard that HIV or other STD virus survive in bodily fluids. Is it possible that the virus might have swapped and have entered my urethra through the opening of my penis?