Quick update, I haven't been evaluated yet, but my wife had a well woman's visit and she didn't call me asking for a divorce so everything looked fine on her visit. I would assume that 4 months after exposure her cervix would have shown some signs of any STD even if she wasn't having outward signs? I still plan on seeing my MD because the discomfort in my testicles is there but still only bothersome not really painful per se. Any comments or ideas what could be causing my symptoms? If I get any answers before your reply I will let you know. THanks
Thanks for your reply, I will go get evaluated and let you know
The chances that your discomfort is due to an STD acquired through oral sex 4 months ago is very, very low. Sexually acquired epididymitis is primarily caused by gonorrhea and chlamydial infections. Chlamydia is not transmitted through oral sex and thus is not a consideration. Gonorrhea can be asymptomatic and then cause epididymitis but this is a very unusual course of events. Epididymitis can also be transmitted by other bacteria, unrelated to sex.
In your situation, you do not know that you have epididymitis. If you do, you need antibiotic therapy. My advice would be to go see a health care provider and to get evaluated. If epididymitis is a concern they will test you for STDs and start therapy. Similarly, if you have non-STD epididymitis, you will need treatment. On the other hand, if there is something else going on, hopefully this will be detected by your visit to a health care provider as well.
Bottom line. It would be unusual for this to be epididymitis acquired through receipt of oral sex 4 months ago. You should however go get evaluated to find out what is going on.
Please let us know what your doctor says. EWH