I am sorry to be coming back to you for advice yet again.
Basically, background (as before) is that I had 5x protected intercourse with escorts in 2009, between March and August. I had full STD screen after this episode and came back negative for all. As you know, I am concerned about HPV and whether I could have infected my wife, who is unaware of all this. I am married in late 40s. I had two sexual partners before marriage and think my wife may have had 3-4.
In June 2011, she had a negative pap screen and is not due for routine screening for another 3 years.
Although initially reassured by your advice, I have been suffering from increasing and continuous anxiety about this situation, to the point now where I think about it pretty much all of the time.
Questions that continue to swim around my mind are:
- What is the realistic likelihood of my wife having a serious health outcome given the negative pap screen around 2 years after the exposures? Does the negative pap test at least mean that it is unlikely that I have passed on multiple high risk HPV types to my wife?
- How could it be that use of condoms make infection unlikely when such a large proportion of people catch HPV ?
- With all the different types of HPV out there, how is it that having a moderate number of sexual partners means that risk of further infection is reduced?
- Am I being selfish in not informing my wife - because she could then have a test for HPV and catch any problems earlier (especially if there is a high likelihood of high risk infection)?... or...
- Would I be selfish to inform my wife as it would just pass on the anxiety to her (as well as all the sadness it would create about me having betrayed her)?
I know you probably can't help much with the last two questions... but I would appreciate any final views or advice you could give to help me get all this into perspective, make the right decisions and handle my anxiety.