Hello. Thank you for your help. I posted several months ago about a low positive chlamydia test result. However, I have not yet had vaginal sex. I did have one oral encounter (gave with protection/received without) paired with one mutual masturbation encounter. I am female and my partner was male. I was STD tested a year later and my result came back with a low positive for chlamydia, and my doctor treated me with azithromycin. It was a nucleic acid amplification test conducted on a urine sample.
Dr. Hook replied to my questions, and was quite reassuring that the test result must have been a false positive. My provider, however, told me that it is completely possible that I contracted chlamydia from receiving unprotected oral sex. 1) Who has the more recent data? Is there any new literature that would suggest this is a possibility? I trust my provider, but I think he could have saved me from this anxiety if he had just re-tested me instead of treating. 2) Also, I don't have any medical training, but my partner's site of infection would have been his throat, and my site of infection would have to be my cervix, and the vagina is an acidic, unfriendly place for bacteria, correct? How could this be possible? 3) And if Dr. Hook's initial answer was correct, then why does my doctor think that contraction would have been possible? Even if my partner was infected (which is completely plausible, he was extremely promiscuous) 4) what are the chances that I could have had it?
Also, when my doctor was telling me about the test result, he said that from the result (as a low-grade chlamydial infection on a nucleic acid amp. test) he couldn't give me a 100% that I had it. 5) What does that mean? That even if someone were having unprotected sex and got this result, that it doesn't necessarily mean that they are infected? 6) What are the chances that you don't have an infection with this test result?
I'm worried about my fertility. Please help!