Hello,
I recently dated a man who revealed to me that he has genital herpes. Unfortunately, he told me this after we had unprotected sex about a 12X over a 1 month period. He's had the infection for over 10yrs and claims to have never given it to anyone, including his ex-wife. He hasn't had an outbreak in 2yrs. I don't know if its HSV1 or HSV2. He isn't taking medication for it.
I immediately had bloodwork done but was unaware of the IGM testing problems at the time and had both the IGM and IGG done. My first round of testing was only about 10 days post my last possible exposure, but it came up with a + IGM at 1.87 and - IGG (< .91). I knew it was early, but I became particularly concerned because I remembered that I had had a yeast infection nearly a week after the first time we had sex, and another yeast infection a month later (right after the last time we had sex). I had no other symptoms and I treated them with otc medication and they went away within a week and seemed normal.
I've been tested another 3x (the last being just over 4 weeks from the last exposure and 8 weeks from the 1st exposure), and my IGG has come up - each time. But I decided to continue with the IGM to see if it increased. The IGM went from 1.87 to 2.85 to 2.73 over the last month. Interestingly, the lab made a mistake once and did the IGG for HSV1 which came up + somewhere between 2.2 and 2.4. I've never had symptoms of HSV1, but I know that doesn't necessarily mean anything.
Additionally, I visited my gyno and did a screen for everything. I didn't tell her about the possible HSV exposure because of insurance issues. Again everything came up -, except for an abnormal pap possibly indicating HPV and I now have to have a colposcopy.
I know I have to wait a full 3 months to be sure, but how likely is it at this point that I am + given this information? I read that most people will test + by 6 weeks? Could my abnormal pap be a sign of HSV?
Thanks so much in advance.