So here are my questions:
11 weeks ago, I made a horrendous mistake of going to a massage parlor with a few of my friends on the evening of a bachelor party. I received 10 seconds of unprotected insertive oral sex. I immediately stopped the girl as I had never intended on partaking in oral sex. It's also worthy of mention that I am married and am seeking advice to ensure I protect her (a thought that should have entered my mind prior to entering this place) With that said, I did have unprotected sex with my wife roughly 5 days later as I didn't really understand the risks STD's associated with insertive oral sex until I did some research on the net.
8 Days after this six second episode, I had a full panel STD test, to include the Ghonorrea / Chlam PCR exam All negative. I have seen that this test must be taken without urinating one hour prior to exam. Since this was so long ago, I am unsure if my results are reliable as i do not remember how long it was since I last urinated.
Over the next few weeks I did have some burning right at the tip of my penis, but absolutely no pain during urination and no discharge whatsoever. About 4 weeks later, I had a sore throat, and my doctor prescribed me cipro, twice a day for about a week.
My wife has not had any symptoms, however I had been abstaining from sex out of fear of passing something along to her. I went back and had a full STD checkup 9 weeks after this brief encounter, and was negative for Chlam, Syph, Gonn, HIV etc. Upon receipt of the results, my wife and i resumed unprotected sex, and this morning she woke up with some remnants of blood in her underwear (very little) but some. I read that ghonorrea can cause bleeding in between periods, so now I am back to being very concerned. How rational is it to think that I passed an STD to my wife and the first test was a false negative because of "potentially" urinating too soon before the test? Or that the nine week test was irrelevant due to the cipro?