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Questions on STDs
Hi Doctor,
Huge mistake: I had unprotected vaginal and mutual oral sex outside of my marriage at a sales conference. Woman is 39. Timeline:
>January 25 – Had vaginal unprotected, oral sex, technically twice in a period of two hours.
>January 28 – Noticed mild burning when urinating, lasted 2 or 3 days. Still don’t know if my mind manifested this or if it was real.
>January 30 (5.5 days later) – A friend dr (unrelated medical field) gave me 1.5g Z pack (all at once) + a single tablet of Levaquin (don’t recall the dosage, to be conservative, assume 250mg since I think that’s the mimimum?) as well as Flagyl.. This was intended to eradicate any possible gonorrhea, Chlamydia or trich.
>>Date Uncertain – Approximately 3, maybe 4 weeks after taking the antibiotics, I had sex with my wife.
April 10th – Wife confronts me “did you cheat on me?!? I have an unusual sore on my vagina and it doesn’t seem like herpes.” After denying, I observed the sore and it looks like a white pimple on her labia. I understand it's very possibly to be a bartholin’s cyst which can be often a result of STD.
Questions:
1. I’m reading about antibiotic resistant gonorrhea. Given the antibiotics I had taken, can I feel confident I would have knocked out Chlam. and Gon., or is there a possibility the drugs would not have done their job (she lives in San Diego)
2. I plan to test Monday for Chlam.+ Gon; however I understand these infections can clear up eventually even without treatment. My concern then would be that I test neg but still not know if I could have passed infection to my wife. Is it possible that I could have passed Gon or Chlam to my wife and then later, my body eventually eliminated the infection on its own despite the antibiotics not working? If I now test negative for G+C, can I be confident that I didn’t pass either on to my wife?
3. I’m wondering if the antibiotics I took would have killed incubating syphilis since I took them 5.5 days after possible exposure?
Huge mistake: I had unprotected vaginal and mutual oral sex outside of my marriage at a sales conference. Woman is 39. Timeline:
>January 25 – Had vaginal unprotected, oral sex, technically twice in a period of two hours.
>January 28 – Noticed mild burning when urinating, lasted 2 or 3 days. Still don’t know if my mind manifested this or if it was real.
>January 30 (5.5 days later) – A friend dr (unrelated medical field) gave me 1.5g Z pack (all at once) + a single tablet of Levaquin (don’t recall the dosage, to be conservative, assume 250mg since I think that’s the mimimum?) as well as Flagyl.. This was intended to eradicate any possible gonorrhea, Chlamydia or trich.
>>Date Uncertain – Approximately 3, maybe 4 weeks after taking the antibiotics, I had sex with my wife.
April 10th – Wife confronts me “did you cheat on me?!? I have an unusual sore on my vagina and it doesn’t seem like herpes.” After denying, I observed the sore and it looks like a white pimple on her labia. I understand it's very possibly to be a bartholin’s cyst which can be often a result of STD.
Questions:
1. I’m reading about antibiotic resistant gonorrhea. Given the antibiotics I had taken, can I feel confident I would have knocked out Chlam. and Gon., or is there a possibility the drugs would not have done their job (she lives in San Diego)
2. I plan to test Monday for Chlam.+ Gon; however I understand these infections can clear up eventually even without treatment. My concern then would be that I test neg but still not know if I could have passed infection to my wife. Is it possible that I could have passed Gon or Chlam to my wife and then later, my body eventually eliminated the infection on its own despite the antibiotics not working? If I now test negative for G+C, can I be confident that I didn’t pass either on to my wife?
3. I’m wondering if the antibiotics I took would have killed incubating syphilis since I took them 5.5 days after possible exposure?
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the forum. I'll try to help.
First, though, a plea to all forum users: It is unnecessary to "confess" on this forum. I don't care whether or not you view your actions as a "huge mistake". I don't moralize about behaviors and you shouldn't either. As in the old Dragnet series, "Just the facts, ma'am".
You describe a pretty low risk sexual encounter. If your partner was a professional colleague, the odds are her chance of having an STD before you got together were as low as your own. The transient urinary burning might or might not have been significant -- but if you're not even sure whether it was real or only "in your head", most likely it didn't mean anything. In any case, the antibiotics you received would have cured or prevented any possible bacterial STD: chlamydia, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethrits (NGU), syphilis. Since you took them before you had sex with your wife, you could not have transmitted any of those infections to her. And there is no point in your being tested for them.
As for your wife's symptoms, it's hard to comment on a second hand report. Herpes is always a consideration for a pimple-like labial lesion. Or it might have just been a pimple. You're not going to like hearing this, but she should be examined and evaluated for herpes. If she has it, it doesn't necessarily have anything to do with your extramarital encounter.
To the specific questions:
1) Gonorrhea is not a realistic issue. Almost all cases cause overt and obvious symptoms that you would not have missed (pus dripping from the penis); and the combination of antibiotics you had would have cured it.
2) As I said above, there is little point in testing now; and even if you had been infected, little or no chance you could have transmitted them to your wife, once you took the antibiotics.
3) Yes. Azithromycin would have eradicated incubating syphilis.
Bottom lines: It is unlikely you were infected with anything; the treatments would have eradicated any infection you were likely to get, and thereby protected your wife; and most likely her labial lesion isn't related to your sexual indiscretion. However, to be maximally certain about your wife's health, she should see her health care provider for evaluation of the labial sore.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
First, though, a plea to all forum users: It is unnecessary to "confess" on this forum. I don't care whether or not you view your actions as a "huge mistake". I don't moralize about behaviors and you shouldn't either. As in the old Dragnet series, "Just the facts, ma'am".
You describe a pretty low risk sexual encounter. If your partner was a professional colleague, the odds are her chance of having an STD before you got together were as low as your own. The transient urinary burning might or might not have been significant -- but if you're not even sure whether it was real or only "in your head", most likely it didn't mean anything. In any case, the antibiotics you received would have cured or prevented any possible bacterial STD: chlamydia, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethrits (NGU), syphilis. Since you took them before you had sex with your wife, you could not have transmitted any of those infections to her. And there is no point in your being tested for them.
As for your wife's symptoms, it's hard to comment on a second hand report. Herpes is always a consideration for a pimple-like labial lesion. Or it might have just been a pimple. You're not going to like hearing this, but she should be examined and evaluated for herpes. If she has it, it doesn't necessarily have anything to do with your extramarital encounter.
To the specific questions:
1) Gonorrhea is not a realistic issue. Almost all cases cause overt and obvious symptoms that you would not have missed (pus dripping from the penis); and the combination of antibiotics you had would have cured it.
2) As I said above, there is little point in testing now; and even if you had been infected, little or no chance you could have transmitted them to your wife, once you took the antibiotics.
3) Yes. Azithromycin would have eradicated incubating syphilis.
Bottom lines: It is unlikely you were infected with anything; the treatments would have eradicated any infection you were likely to get, and thereby protected your wife; and most likely her labial lesion isn't related to your sexual indiscretion. However, to be maximally certain about your wife's health, she should see her health care provider for evaluation of the labial sore.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Well, your wife's herpes history probably explains the labial lesion. So that's probably even less a concern than I thought.
Also forgot to mention, I don't know if the girl I cheated with has any STD's. She said "not that I know of.." but who knows..
Forgot to mention -- my wife already has herpes which is why I'm not worried about that particular STD..
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
