Doctor,
I had an encounter with a pro in mid-April. I was wearing a condom, but was having trouble keeping an erection. When I pulled out, I noticed that the condom was only covering the top 2/3's of my penis the bottom third of my penis had been exposed. I pulled off the condom and asked her to finish me with her hand (which she did) The hand portion lasted about 2 - 3 minutes.
I had no symptoms of anything wrong for 54 days. On the 54th day, I had sex with my partner. It was the first time we had done it in 7 months and I didn't not have a very powerful erection. As I entered her, there was a lot of friction for the first 30 seconds. 2 days later, it started to feel very weird when I urinated. I had to urinate more frequently in smaller amounts and the stream was much weaker. Also, I felt a mild irritation in my urethra. It felt like there was still urine in there after I urinated, but nothing would come out. This was more in the middle of my penis and not at the tip. It didn't hurt urinate. I just felt the irritation afterward. I had no discharge from penis or pain in my testicles.
I had some antibotics (amoxicillan) at the house and stupidly, I started taking those 2 1/2 days before I could get tested. I tested negative for everything, but I'm concerned that I might have screwed up the test by taking amoxicillan before I went. At the time I took the test, I still had the symptoms. By day, 4 of taking Amoxicillian, the symptoms had disappeared. I continued taking the drug for another 4 days.
My questions are:
1) Could I have caught an STD from the person who gave me the handjob?
2) If I have no symptoms for 54 days, is it safe to assume that I did not catch gonorrhea or chlamydia.
3) Would taking amoxicillian 2 1/2 days before a urine test remove any traces of the disease and make the test worthless?
4) What the chances that I exposed my partner to something.
I appreciate your help