Yes, some sort of irritatnt effect is possible. 8-10 hours is too soon for an STD to be symptomatic but it is not too soon for irritation from a lubricant or other chemical reaction.
Thank you for your answers and I will just mention one quick thing then be done with it....The morning after receiveing a ** I had a wierd feeling at the tip of my penis...not burning maybe a little bit of a sting..nothing when I peed or no discharge. Also after the oral I did have protected sex with a condom she supplied. Could it have been the type of condom?...is 8-10 hours to early for symptoms?...thank you and after your reply I will not send anymore..thanks for all your help!.
Occasionally STDs do go away by themselves however, from what you have said, I cannot imagine why you would even think that you had an STD. I urge you to stop worry abou tthis and move forward with your life. EWH
Thank you for your answers....I was also wondering if I did get something from this encounter and the antibiotics never worked would these infections go away themselves?... It has been a year since this all happened?...also do men usually get symptoms with these bacterial STD's?, thank you.
For starters, your risk for STD, particularly since you received only oral sex is very low. The infections you would be most likely to get from receipt of oral sex are either gonorrhea or non-chlamydial NGU (chlamydia is very rare in the throat). Biaxin has not been well studied for STDs but is related to azithromycin and likely would cure both chlamydia (which is unlikely to be there) and NGU. It's activity against gonorrhea is questionable.
As for the amoxicillin, it would not do much. It would cure about half to 2/3 of gonorrhea with little activity against chlamydia or NGU.
Having said that, without any symptoms, your risk of STD is low. I would not worry or get tested. EWH