Hi Doctor --
I've got what I think is a pretty unusual case and I'm looking for some guidance.
I'm a straight male with no history of any anal sexual exposure. I was recently diagnosed with an anal wart (nothing on my genitals), which obviously shocked me. The doctor agreed it was an odd presentation so he did a biopsy to confirm.
The lab confirmed it was a wart during biopsy but apparently felt something looked odd so they did subtype testing as well. They narrowed it down to one of the "common wart types," either type 1, 2 or 4, I believe. They didn't proceed with further specification after determining it was NOT 6, 11, 16 or 18.
I understand this is very odd to have something besides type 6 or 11 causing an anogenital wart.
I have the following questions:
1. Is there any reason to believe types 1, 2 or 4 will clear faster or slower than the typical genital strains?
2. Does this have any implications for likelihood of tranmission? Since types 1, 2 and 4 don't "like" the anogenital area, does this suggest I'm less likely to transmit this to a sexual partner?
3. Having had the wart removed, is there any benefit to proceeding with immiquimod use to help speed up my body's immune response to clear the virus? My doctor said it might help but didn't seem to think it was that important.
4. In general, do you have any advice on how I should treat this differently than a typical genital wart?