Ok,Here's my story. I am a gay man who rarley has sex of any kind. 13 Days ago I went to a beat at night , I had sex with a young guy whom I know nothing about. He gave me oral, we kissed alot I fingered his *** (no lube just saliva),I licked his arse and I ****** him with a condom, however when I finished and pulled out the condom had broken. I also had an irritated type rash on the of head of my penis from a reaction to a recent change in lubricant that I masturbate with. Also Im not sure but I think he may have used precum to lube his *** aswell before I ****** him. So 4 days after that encounter I began to get a sore throat and swollen glands and tonsils in my neck (one side in particular)with some discharge from tonsils. My throat is not really that sore and has gotten a bit better, however the gland on my left side is still really swollen and tender (its about 3/4 of an inch large). I havn't felt like I have a temperature at all.
So my concern is obviously hiv, Can the symptoms appear after 4 days of transmission and are neck glands the ones which become swollen? Also could it be clymedia or gonnoreah? I am going to a sexual health clinic tomorrow but would like some advice in the meantime.
The response from Concerned5 (below), before I saw your question, is correct. Your symptoms came on too soon to be due to HIV acquired during that exposure. Further, ARS almost always includes fever. So it's more likely you acquired a garden-variety respiratory virus, unlrelated to the sexual exposure you describe (unless you just caught a cold from him). Chlamydia rarely infects the throat, and is not known to cause symptoms when it does; and most gonorrhea of the throat is asymptomatic. In any case, your plan to visit a sexual health clinic is the right one; I anticipate they will confirm my judgement, but let me know if they think otherwise.
If you have read a number of other threads on this forum, you know what else I'm going to say: In my opinion, no gay man should ever have anal sex (top or bottom) with another man without first knowing that person's HIV status. That is, even when condom use if planned, there simply is no excuse for not asking a partner's HIV status (and knowing and offering one's own HIV status) before exposure. I don't say this (again) to lecture you, just to make the general point.
Bottom line (no pun intended): The odds are strongly in your favor that nothing serious will come from this event. But follow the advice of your SHC provider.
They almost always appear 2-3 weeks after infection, if they appear at all, 4 days is too early.
Don't diagnose yourself with symptoms, if you're concerned about symptoms your having, it would be wise to see your physician for proper diagnosis/treatment.
Also since the condom broke, it would be wise to test 12-13 weeks after your unprotected exposure, though as the doctor will I'm sure tell you, a great indication you haven't been infected is a negative test at 6 weeks, as the overwhelming majority will test positive at this time.
Make sure to keep using condoms for intercourse every time, properly and with the appropriate water based lube, and you will likely remain HIV negative forever.
John Bartlett is a 20 year friend and knows what he is talking about. But many of the the 80-90% have pretty mild symptoms. Probably 50-60% have prominent symptoms that almost anyone would notice, if it happend to them. The other 30-40% have mild symptoms that some people might not pay much attention to.
Now seems like a good time to re-present my "Theory of Declining Probability of HIV Infection by Way of Absence of ARS" for peer review, and this time I have not been drinking.
We know that about 50% of the newly HIV infected population will have noticeable symptoms within 4 weeks.
Say you have an estimated exposure risk to be 1 in 10,000 by Dr. H and after 4 weeks you do not have symptoms of ARS.
You will now be less likely to be infected with HIV, and this is how:
Representing the 1 in 10,000 estimate as 2 in 20,000,
where the "2" is persons "A" and "B". Say "A" represents the 50% that have symptoms of ARS, you would have to be person "B" at this point actually have HIV. And the odds of you being person "B" are now 1 in 20,001. So your odds of having HIV have decreased from 1 in 10,000 to 1 in 20,001. This has to be right, it is just simple probability math.
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