I accidently posted in another forum, my mistake.
It has been a while since I have been on this forum and I must say the fees have certainly increased.
I have been celibate and I mean celibate for two years.
This celibacy was recently broken with a fellow co-worker at a 'before the school year starts and the crazy kids come back' party. (3 days ago) Both my co-worker and I were DRUNK and the sex lasted about 5-10 minutes, no protection. Aside from our stupidity and complete lapse in judgment, we discussed our sexual health, he is married and was worried about taking something home to his wife, his only partner for the past 25 years, and I was last screened for STDs, including HIV in 2011. I saw no lesions on his penis that would have given a red flag, then again, it was dark. He did mention that he puts powder on his penis to soak up sweat.
He did not ejaculate in me, he pushed me off so he could finish. When I discussed pre-ejaculatory fluids can be present, despite the actual ejaculation. He said, I had a vasectomy 23 years ago.
I just nodded as I got up to use the bathroom and noticed a little bit of blood and mucus, when I wiped my vagina with the toilet paper. I attributed the presence of blood to friction and the lack of enough natural lubrication.
We are both African Americans, in Denver CO. I am 31, he is 45. He suffers from MS and is on a weekly injection, along with a brain lesion that is drained once a month. He seems to go to the doctor pretty regularly.
I do not know his wife's history!
The only thing I have noticed is a little irritation when I try to urinate, a mellow burning sensation and a small amount of itching. There is no odd smell or discharge.
Given that both he and I claim:
No presence of STD, including HIV or Herpes
Would it be necessary to run out and get an STD panel run.
PS. Condoms, I know I should carry one in my purse