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Understanding the risks of mutual fingering

Id like to better understand the risks of mutual fingering, and why the risk for this is zero as opposed to normal penetrative sex. I cant see a great difference between the two in terms of potential mechanisms of transmission.

From a recent post - the Dr Hook said that there is zero  risk of STD transmission from a woman inserting fingers into her self and then fingering your anus.

From reading other posts, the fluid containing the std has to be massaged into a susceptible location - and I would have thought that the anus with a thin barrier to the blood stream would have meant this action would be a high risk for transmission

Can you please describe in detail why the risk for this event would be zero (or virtually zero), and / or point to scientific papers that confirm this as zero risk - and describe in detail the mechanism for transmission for STDs.

Many thanks
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
There isn't anything complex about "understand[ing] the risks of mutual fingering".  There is no STD risk to speak of.  You are correct that theoretically such transmission could occur, for the reasons you state.  But it is exceedingly rare if it occurs at all.  In 30+ years in a busy STD clinic, I don't think I have ever seen a case of any STD that did not involve insertive vaginal, anal, or oral sex -- and certainly never say any infection in someone whose only apparent risk had been fingering or mutual masturbation.

As for your request to "describe in detail", little more is known than I just said.  Because such transmission appears to be rare, there has been no research on it -- and I doubt there ever will be.  Here is a thread that describes the biology of STD/HIV transmission, which may help explain things for you.  Read the entire thread; the most important information comes in follow-up comments:  http://www.medhelp.org/posts/show/1119533

Regards--  HHH, MD
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