The non-type specific test suggests you are infected with HSV, of one type or the other. It is possible you have HSV-1, given the equivocal result. The HSV-1 type specific results are inherently less reliable than HSV-2. (The result is definitely negative for HSV-2.)
So it is possible your symptoms were due to HSV-1 and that the HSV-1 blood test is in the process of becoming positive. Talk with your doctor about having another type-specific test for HSV-1 in a few weeks. If it becomes more strongly positive, it will confirm a new HSV-1 infection. If still equivocal or negative, it will indicate that something other than herpes was the cause of your symptoms.
Methodology: HSV I/II: chemiluminescence; HSV type-specific 1 and 2: enzyme immunoassay (EIA
was the test for the above results. the 4.5 value was chemiluminescence and the other two results were from specific typing eia test.
Hi Dr. I went back and got tested this week. I've exhibited no symptoms, since the initial issue. The results confuse me:
HSV I/II IgG Rflx I-II Type Sp
HSV I/II IgG 4.5 H
Then they did the typing exercise:
HSV 1 IgG, Type Spec 0.96 H
HSV 2 IgG, Type Spec <0.91
Looking at the ranges .96 is in the "equivocal range" for HSV 1. So do I have HSV 1?
There are non-sexually acquired conditions that can cause genital ulceration, including certain viruses and skin conditions. With negative results both from the HSV culture and the blood test, most likely this will prove to be something other than herpes. However, I agree with repeating the HSV blood test in a few weeks. However, you should ignore the result of the IgM antibody test, which probably is what your doctor means by "present" antibodies. The IgG test ("past" antibodies) is the only reliable HSV blood test. Here is a thread that tells why; it's over 3 years old, but still valid:
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/show/248394
Thanks. My first visit to the doc was pre-ulcerations, my appologies for leaving that out. They ran the urine test and at that time prescribed doxy. Three days later the ulceration appeared and at that time they prescribed valtrex.
I will need to call and get numbers. He said they ran two different types blood tests. One that looked for present anitbodies one that looked at "past". He said both were negative. I am going to go back and get retested to see if there are now antibodies present. Thanks.
Welcome to the STD forum. I'll try to help. However, this is a difficult and somewhat confusing situation, perhaps beyond the help of a distant online source, no matter how expert.
From your description, your initial problem sounds consistent with an initial infection with genital herpes. Herpes often shows up the first time in monogamous couples, when one of the partners has been infected for a long time (from some previous sex partner) and transmission to the other partner finally occurs. This can happen many years into a relationship, so that first appearance of herpes in monogamous couples doesn't necessarily mean that either partner has been unfaithful.
Whether this explains the situation in your case, I cannot say. Your wife's initial symptoms are not typical for herpes, but possible. However, if both your symptoms and hers were herpes, both sound like initial infections, not recurrent outbreaks. In that case, it would imply that one of you brought the infection into the relationship recently, i.e. had sex with someone else. Alternatively, maybe your wife has longstandiing herpes, had a UTI and yeast, and those infections triggered a herpes recurrence.
Having said all that, I'm also puzzled by the treatments your doctors prescribed. Herpes does not respond to any of the antibiotic treatments you mention -- so the docs must have believed something more than herpes was going on. As for your herpes tests, culture for the virus usually is positive in new HSV infections -- but not always. The blood tests are pretty much always positive in people who have been infected for more than 2-3 months, but negative before that.
In the event this is herpes, it could be either HSV-2, the usual cause of genital herpes; or HSV-1, which usually causes oral cold sores but can be transmitted to the genital area by oral sex. That's another way that herpes could explain this without implying outside sexual partnerships.
That's about all I can say, based on the information you have provided. If you and your wife both have had blood tests for HSV, please provide the results -- i.e., the numerical values for HSV-1 and HSV-2. With that information, I may be able to sort this out a bit more accurately.
Sorry I can't say more at this time. Best wishes-- HHH, MD