That's my interepretation of how you summarized the biopsy report. But I'm not an expert in pathology and have no professional training or experience in interpreting path reports. Most STD experts in the US rarely biopsy suspected warts; we but send patients needing biopsy to dermatologists.
So if as a doctor received this wording on a Pathology report, you would say that the biopsy was not that of a genital wart?
Sorry, I can't clear up the confusion. You'll have to work it out with the dermatologist. Good luck.
Wow now im very confused. My derm provided the report at my request. I told my wife about the wart or so called wart. When the Derm removed the lets call it a bump, he asked if I wanted a biopsy to see if in fact it was a wart and I agreed. The biposy he said confirmed that i did in fact have a genital wart, he then asked if I wanted to find out what type it was. So i said Yes. So im not sure whats up. I did in fact tell my wife that a derm said I had a genital wart. and that it was removed. She aske If we could get a copy of the report, since I told her that he said it was Neg Lo, Neg Hi risk. He did not tell me much other than that.
This could have been asked as a follow-up to your previous thread.
Dermatopathology reports are not designed or worded for patients; the report is a communication to the doctor who did the biopsy, who in turn is responsible to explain the diagnosis to the patient. But it sounds to me like the lesion is not a wart or HPV infection at all; if it were, it would be positive for HPV, but is negative for both low risk and high risk HPV types. Probably "CONDYLOMA ACUMINATUM, OLD" is what the dermatologist entered as the suspected diagnosis before the biopsy, and not the actual diagnosis from the pathology. In any case, all these are questions for the dermatologist who did the biopsy; his or her replies will be more reliable than mine. My bet is he will confirm you don't have a wart and don't have HPV.
Regards-- HHH, MD