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Very Concerned About STDs...Please Help!

Dear Sir,

I have posted in the (free) Community Forums, but would very much appreiciate an an expert opinion:

On February 1, 2010 I had protected vaginal and unprotected oral with an escort.  

A few years BEFORE this incident (2006-2007), my wife discovered an abscess on her labia and was diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis.  She was given antibiotics and the symptoms went away until late-summer / early-fall of 2010 (about 6-8 months AFTER my encounter with the escort).  At that time, whe was seen a second time by a different gyno, who removed an abscess from her labia.

Again she seemed fine until the past few months she has been experiencing uterine cramping and some vaginal discharge at various times throughout the month.  I have not had any symptoms whatsoever, but from what I understand about certain STDs (Chlamydia and Gonorrhea), not having physical symptoms is not uncommon.  She recently visited her gyno and was examined by an LPN.  There was not any adscess present this time, however, she was given some sort of antibioctic and the symptoms went away for a couple of months until recently they are starting to re-appear.

My questions are as follows:  
1) Could I have an STD without knowing it and passed it on to my wife as a result of my encounter in February 2010?  
2) Is uterine cramping a common symptom of Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?   I believe the LPN she saw may have indicated the cramping could be as a result of uterine fibroids.  
3) Do gyno's normally test for chlamydia during annual gyno check-ups (pap smear)?  
4) Should I test?  

Thank you very much for the fine service you provide!
5 Responses
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
If your wife's abcesses probably are caused by staph, strep, or some other non-STD bacteria, especially if they are occurring on her are labia major (i.e., well outside the vagina, especially in hair-bearing areas).  Beyond that, you and she will have to discuss the cause with her doctor.  It is not an STD problem.

That will be all for this thread.  This forum doesn't deal with non-STD health problems, even when they involve the genital area, so I won't have any more comments or advice.
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Happy New Year Dr. Handsfield,

The good news is I tested negative for chlamydia and gonorrhea.  The bad news is my wife just discovered another abscess on her labia.  In your opinion, what could the most likely cause be?

Thank you for your feedback?

Helpful - 0
239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Chlamydia rarely infects the mouth and throat -- therefore, oral sex can't give someone chlamydia.  I can't put a number to the risk, but I suspect it's under 1 chance 10,000.

There are too many non-STD conditions that could cause your wife's symptoms for me to try to list them all.  Fibroids, endometriosis, endometritis, and hormone balance problems are among the common ones.

My final advice is that you arrange to speak confidentially with your wife's doctor.  Describe your concerns, including your non-marital sexual exposure(s).  If he or she has already ruled out STDs as a cause of your wife's problems, that should be very reassuring; and you can be certain s/he will keep your conversation confidential from your wife (you can state this up front before giving the details).  On the other hand, if based on your information the doctor believes an STD is a realistic possibility, your wife has to know -- so in that case, you would have to 'fess up anyway.
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Doctor,

Thank you very much for the response.  Can you clarify a couple of things:

1) You state there is "little chance" from the oral.  Can you quantify this the same way you would for HIV (I.e. 1/2000, etc.)?

2) Are there any specific non-STDs that come to mind that could be causing the discharge and uterine cramping?  (You indicated there are a number of non-STD conditions that could be the cause.)

Thank you again for your response.

Happy Holidays!!
Helpful - 0
239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the forum.  I'll try to help.

As you were informed on the STD and chlamydia community forums, there was no realistic chance you were infected with chlamydia or any other STD through protected vaginal sex, and little chance from the unprotected oral.  Chlamydia infrequently infects the mouth or throat, and therefore is rarely if ever transmitted by oral sex.  Further, even if you were infected almost 2 years ago, it would be unlikely you still would have it.  The immune system clears most chlamydial infections within a few months.

As for your wife's gynecological problems, no STD is a likely cause of a labial abscess; gonorrhea could do it, but quite unlikely.  Her more recent symptoms sound suspicious for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) -- which is usually, but not always, caused by chlamydia or other STDs.  But an STD from you, from the outside exposure you describe, is still not a realistic possibility.  And if her doctor or nurse thought there was a significant possibility of chlamydia or other STD, they would have told your wife and advised her to tell you; and they probably would have tested her for gonorrhea and chlamydia as well.

To your specific questions:

1) For the reasons already given, the chance is virtually zero that you have chlamydia or any other STD from your Feb 2010 encounter.

2) Chlamydia can caus such symptoms, but so can fibroids and a number of other non-STD conditions.

3) Routine chlamydia testing is common but not universal.  It should be done (and often is) in women age 25 and under, but not usually in women older than that.

4) From a strictly medical standpoint, there is no need for testing.  However, if you would gain additional confidence from knowing you have had negative urine tests for chlamydia and gonorrhea, go ahead for peace of mind.

I hope this helps.  Best wishes--  HHH, MD
Helpful - 0

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