I am a 29 year old male
Had a first time extramarital affair with another 21 yr old women over 4 months ago. Unprotected vaginal intercourse
Got tested for everything:
Gonorrhea /Chlamydia / Neg 5 days after incident with swab test got treated anyways with doxy and a shot
Herpes – neg 5wk and 13 wk igg test
HIV – neg @ 8 wks
Syphilis – neg @ 5 wks
After I thought I was in the clear began having unprotected sex with my wife. Shortly after she developed what appeared to be a very painful UTI that even went into her kidneys. She was given Levaquin for 7 days and she felt fine after. (She had never had a UTI before)
After that incident I went back to my urologist and asked for another Gonorrhea /Chlamydia test. Again came back negative. NAAT urine test
Had sex with my wife again and again she has pain in the bladder area along with some burning urination along with some pain in her lower back / upper butt.
I began to get prostate pain 1 wk after my affair, but my urologist after tests says its non-bacterial.
I have also been treated with Levaquin and did not help my prostate issues.
Can her symptoms be due to an STD that I gave her or am I worrying for nothing?
Could she have gotten an STD from me and the Levequin cleared it up and now I gave it to her again?
Should I get tested again and treated?
Is my first time prostate issues and her first time UTI.. really a coincidence?
Her urine samples from the first UTI came out negative, but they do not test for Gonorrhea /Chlamydia
I am also worried about PID ..
Is there any way that Gonorrhea /Chlamydia in me could’ve gone undetected in me after all my tests?
Your "prostate pain" a week after your extramarital adventure sounds like male pelvic pain syndrome. It used to be called nonbacterial prostatitis, but that terminology is outmoded, and it probably is not due to infection of any kind. Mostly it is a manifestation of genitally focused anxiety, and antibiotics don't help. See http://www.pelvicpainhelp.com/. The Wikipedia article also is quite good: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prostatitis#Category_III:_CP.2FCPPS.2C_pelvic_myoneuropathy.
Second, your chlamydia and gonorrhea tests were highly reliable, especially since you had repeat testing. You can be sure you were not and are not infected with either of them; you could not and did not transmit them to your wife.
Third, UTI does not result from sexual transmission. Sex often triggers UTI in women, because during sex E. coli and similar bacteria--which often are normally present in the vagina--are easily "massaged" into the urethra. Your wife's UTI had nothing to do with your extramarital event. And UTI pretty easy to tell from PID; it is unlikely your wife was misdiagnosed.
Fourth, in the virtually zero risk likelihood that despite all this, your wife really had chlamydia or gonorrhea, the levofloxacin (Levaquin) would have cleared it up.
Bottom line: From all you say, your wife's illness had no relationship whatever to your affair. No further medical evaluation or testing is necessary, in either you or your wife.
Thanks for you quick response ... One follow up.. if indeed it was a UTI then how would two urine test cultures on her come back negative for any bacteria?
I am ready to put it to rest (again) and I never want to go thru this again.. what I did was stupid, but we want to have another child now and I do not want to risk problems coming up during her pregnacy because of my stupidity... So I can put PID to rest?
I missed the fact that her urine cultures were negative. That sometimes happens, but is atypical. But still, with your negative STD tests and her treatment with levofloxacin, there is no realistic chance that she has any continuing STD problem. I cannot speculate about PID beyond what I have already said.
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