First some history. Two years ago I had reason to believe I may be infected due to having unprotected sex and 7 days later developed some slight symptoms. I had a mild, persistent pain in the urethra and had flu like symptoms for a week. No discharge, external lesions, etc. A series of tests were performed and Herpes 1 and 2 came back positive. All other tests were negative and I never took any antibiotics. However, there was no way to determine if the Herpes was contracted from the last encounter as I had never been tested previously.
For the last 2 years I have had monogamous, protected sex. No Herpes symptoms have occured and as far as I know, I have never had any true Herpes symptoms (lesions) even though I did test positive.
Two weeks ago I had protected sex but with a high-risk partner (foreign prostititute). As far as I am aware the condom integrity was never breached, but due to my extreme intoxication, I could not be 100% certain. 7 days later I developed a mild, persistent pain (not just while urinating) of the urethra. Mostly concentrated near the tip. No discharge. No external lesions. However, I have now had the pain for more than a week.
Questions:
1. Could this pain be a mild Herpes outbreak even though it is not accompanied by any other systems?
2. What is the likliehood that I could have contracted another STD that would only be causing the stated symptoms?
3. Could this really be pyschosomatic?
4. Or is there another ailment not related to STD that could be causing it?
5. Lastly, what are the chances of a false positive Herpes test? I don't recall the name of the test, but the doctor did indicate it was the more reliable version.
I do not have easy, convenient access to a doctor so would like to get some feedback on risk/concerns before having to make the effort.
Thanks in advance.