I'm a 53 year old male, who separated from my wife a year ago. Immediately upon separating, I visited a seedy strip club, and had a stripper (probably a prostitute) perform oral on me for about a minute, not to completion. It's very possible this same stripper may have performed oral on someone else right before me. Fearing that I may have gotten infected with the infected semen of someone else, via the oral given by the stripper, I got tested at one of the confidential services advertised online six months after the stripper encounter. All tests (chlamydia, gonorrhea, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, HSV I, HSV II, HIV, syphilis) came back negative.
Months later, after feeling occasional pain at the tip of my penis, and getting online, and reading about NGU, I began to wonder if I could have NGU, since my tests never included NGU months earlier, and honestly had never even heard of NGU. I wonder now if maybe I could have missed earlier symptoms, like discharge I never noticed, etc. My first question, then, is could discharge from NGU be so mild, and the burning pain while urinating be so mild, as to NOT be noticed at all months ago, and then the symptoms stopped, but I'm still capable of spreading NGU to my wife now, nearly a year later? I haven't had any sexual relations since the episode with the stripper over a year ago, and I want to resume relations with my wife. Secondly, having read that NGU can be asymptomatic, is it possible I could be asymptomatic for over a year?
Finally, my third question. Since NGU is usually caused by the chlamydia bacteria, does my negative test for chlamydia taken earlier mean that I could not have NGU, or that I could not have the type of NGU caused by that particular bacteria? I know from reading posts on here that it's been said that NGU caused by oral sex cannot cause harm to future sexual partners, but I don't want to do anything to risk my relationship with my wife that I value more now than ever before.
Thx!