Welcome to the forum. I'll try to help.
Questions about non-penetrating sex in massage parlors are very common on this and the HIV prevention forum. With rare exception, the answer is always the same: little or no risk for STDs of any kind. So based only on the title of your question, it is unlikely you are at risk.
Now I have read the question. I would put your exposure in the zero risk category for most STDs, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), trichomonas, HIV, and viral hepatitis. There was theoretical, very small risk for herpes, human papillomavirus (HPV), and syphilis. However, your symptoms don't match any of these, nor your wife's genital symptoms. Yeast is indeed the most common explanation for vaginal irritation like your wife's.
So I see no need for you to be worried or to be examined. It's more important that your wife get checked out if her symptoms don't clear up quickly. However, some men decide to be examined despite absence of medical risk, simply because a negative exam and STD testing is more reassuring than the opinion of a distant advisor, no matter how expert. On that basis, it's up to you -- but I stress it isn't necessary from a strictly medical perspective.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
A related discussion, erotic massage was started.
Fingering or other hand-genital contact carries little or no risk of any STD transmission. Assuming your diagnosis of epididymitis is accurate (I have my doubts about "minor" epididymitis), it is unrelated to the massage events you have described. The only STD-related causes of epididymits are gonorrhea and chlamydia, and the tests for these are extremely accurate and reliable; and they could not be acquired during your massage.
doctor,
i think i know the answer to this, but i thought i would ask....would it matter if their was penetration with fingers...the proverbial unsealing of the vault...im guessing no as previous posts i read state deep inoculation..which their wasn't .i ask because i recently been diagnosed with epiditimytis, albeit minor, and a hernia . urine was clear of wbc etc i am a little confused because my doc prescribed cipro and then diagnosed epididimytis/hernia and said clear urine/no discharge and small to zero risk to possible ( see above) exposure means no chlamydia etc..do you agree with this ? opinions on epiditimytis ?
thanks in advance this will be my last post on this
very informative and definitive answer. the answer you provided was exactly what i thought based on reading other posts, but one always thinks their is something just a little bit different about their own experience. thank you i hope my posts can reassure someone else that made a poor decision also.