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Avatar universal

exceptions to the rule

I had the person that I've been dating get an HSV2 IGG test because he told me that he had unprotected sex with his prior girlfriend that had herpes for almost 2 years, but never had an outbreak.  One of my best friends has herpes and I wanted to make sure I prevented it.  Then, within 4 weeks of having unprotected sex with him, I'm "positive," I now have genital herpes.  I did start to have symptoms soon after, I just didn't understand what it was.  I went to a doctor who specialized in infectious diseases and she confirmed it by looking at me visually and my blood tests.

She did say that it is possible for a person to have 0.00 IGG and still spread HSV 2, as they are asymptomatic.  He was with her a long time, unprotected sex, and he never had an outbreak.  He never had an IGM test with the IGG test.  He is positive for type 1 herpes and I've always known that I had type 1 herpes too.  Neither of us have ever had cold sores from the type 1 virus.  

I think there is definitely a grey area.  If you're having unprotected sex with someone that has herpes for that long, the virus has got to be "somewhere."  I don't think that it is black and white.
Does it disappear in asymptomatic people or what?  My major question is how can a person be 0.00 for HSV2 IGG after having unprotected sex for almost 2 years with someone that had herpes and spread the virus to his next sex partner, ((or is this not possible??))

Is it possible to spread HSV2 if your IGG is 0.00 for an asymptomatic person in this scenario???  

What test should he get that would have the highest sensitivity and accuracy with IGM and IGG for HSV 1 & 2?  

Thanks  

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Avatar universal
lol.......sorry
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Avatar universal
I was posting for One_confused_girl...
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Avatar universal
no i am not the person you are talking about.......but i have had negative tests up to 17 weeks but still seem to get some sort of symptoms...
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Avatar universal
It seems that you are "loveulongtime". From your other posts it seems that you had recent test results as follows: IGM+, HSV1+, HSV2-. This does not indicate that you have HSV2.
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Avatar universal
Are you the same person as "loveulongtime"?
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300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
As I understand it, you report that you are concerned that your BF, whose prior partner had HSV and who has a negative HerpeSelect assay has given you genital herpes.  Did you have a positive culture?  

Embedded in your question is whether or not everyone with GH develops antibodies to their infection.  The answer in no.  A small proportion (around 5%) of persons with HSV-2 do not develop antibodies to their infection.  I do not know what the natural history of infection is in these people or whether it differs from those who have positive antibody tests.  I will try to check.

That said, as I understand it, your BF has had a partner with GH in the past but has never had an outbreak himself and has totally negative antibody tests.  With this information it is hard to make the case that he has GH.  The type specific IgG test is the right test to do. A small proportion of persons with negative type specific IgG tests will be positive on the University of Washington's Western Blot assay but that number is quite small.  IgM tests are of little value, particularly if you (or he) already has HSV-1.

I look forward to more information from you.  Was your culture positive?  Was it positive of HSV-2, or just HSV-1 (some labs do not type the isolates).

I look forward to hearing more information from you

EWH
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Avatar universal
so your saying you think your bf has been having false negatives this whole time?
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