36 year old, white male. Married for 12 years and faithful with one exception. Almost 3-1/2 years ago I was working out of town on a long term project without my family. Regretably, I was weak and gave in to the advances of an attractive older (46 y.o.) female co-worker who had been flirting with me on and off for over a year. We engaged in unprotected oral and vaginal sex on several occasions over a period of about 3 weeks. Ever since I have been riddled with guilt and fear about what I had done, but could never bring myself to tell my wife.
I returned home shortly thereafter and my wife and I resumed our normal life (except the guilt) as if nothing happened. For 3 years both us us were fine and never showed any symptoms of an std. My wife continues to be fine but about 2 months ago I suddenly started to have some urinary tract problems. Burning urination, painful ejaculation, fever, chills, frequent urination, tender right testicle, etc. I went to my family doctor and after a physical examination he told me I was suffering simultaneously from acute prostatitis and a mild epididymitis. He put me on cipro for 10 days but I only made it for 7 days until I was suffering from serious side effects. He then switched me to Bactrim for 10 days. I completed the Bactrim, but the symptoms still did not resolve entirely. He then put me on Doxycylene for 10 days, which helped but again did not resolve all the symptoms. I am now seeing a urologist who believes I have either a very persistent prostatitis infection or may be developing chronic prostatitis. I am currently on a 30 day course of Bactrim and Flomax to see if that resolves the problem. I have also had blood and urine cultures done at 3 different hospitals and all came back clean with no sign of infection in either.
For my own sanity, I would like to know what are the chances that my current problems are the result of something I foolishly contracted almost 3-1/2 years ago?