Doctor,
My question is about the yield of having HSV testing performed at six months vs. four months in my particular situation.
I had an exposure in mid December with a massuese that included genital-to-genital rubbing with some friction, but no penetration. 20 days post exposure, I noticed a red/purplish irritated spot just under corona area. Went to G.P. right away and he prescribed Lotrimin but also asked if I'd ever been tested positive for genital herpes. That kind of freaked me out (I had never been tested for it before, never had a reason to), so I got a full battery of STD tests on my own - through tstd.org - and tested negative at 3 weeks post exposure for HSV 1 & 2 (Herpeselect IGG), HIV, Syphillis, Gonnoreah and Chlamydia).
I went to my regular dermatologist soon after. She thought it was a fungal infection (although the area had faded a bit by then) and prescribed anti-fungal cream. Got second opinion at another derm., and he thought the same thing. Wife is pregnant - due with our first child in late August - so have been concered.
Had Herpeselect test done again at 12 weeks post exposure - negative again for HSV 1 & 2 IGG. Then had full battery of all tests done again 18 weeks post exposure (Herpeselect 1&2 IGG again, HIV, Syphillis, Gonnoreah, Chlamydia - negative for all).
In between, have had some minor red irritation return to corona area. Have been back to derm, who told me just to put Lotrimin on the area if it flares up for a week or so and see what happens. Says it's not an STD.
I know that I have the opinion of two derms, negative tests at the four month mark, etc., but I want to be completely sure I don't have anything. Have I been completely overtesting? Or is there any value in performing one final Herpeselect test now that I'm at the six-month mark post exposure (this week will mark 26 weeks post exposure)?
Thank you for a great site.