My 86 year old mother suffered a stroke aprox 8 weeks ago.suffers a right side deficit.She has a speech and swallowing problem .She has lost 40 of her 140Lb body wieght.Although her swallowing and speech showed improvement,she still was not meeting her nutritional needs.She was discharged without this
swallowing issue being fully addressed,and was subsequently
brought back 7 days later clearly dehydrated.She was put on I.V.
and to address her swallowing issue,her doctor administered a
drug called PIPOTIAZINE without consulting the family and with no
consent what so ever.She was ,and is ,on aprox.7 other medications,including celexa,lorazepam,atenol,coumadin,etc..
This Dr.also wrote a prescription for PIPOTIAZINE on her discharge date to be administered by injection every 2 weeks .
When attempting to fill this prescription, the pharmacist
question the motive behind this prescription and put it on hold
for me.I followed up with the Dr. in question and he had no idea
that my mother was on a list of other drugs,and had little knowledge of PIPOTIAZINE he simply got a refferal from a hospital psychiatrist.At that point he blamed the pharmacy
for not warning him as to the contraindications of this drug.
Is this negligence?or is drug commonly used in depressed 86
yr old stroke victims with cardiovascular disease and all the effects of a stroke including depression?Thankyou