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DGI

33 year old white male here. Two and a half weeks ago I had unprotected vaginal sex with a 37 year old white female. We have sex a few times per year together. She had one sex partner in the past year in the beginning of September. He wore a condom and she was his first sexual partner since his std test 6 months before that. He was negative during that test. 4 days after sex with her, I started to feel sensitivity in my abdomen on my right side when my shirt would touch it. Over the next few days it started to include sensitivity on the right abdomen and right back. 4 days later, I noticed a small rash of 4-5 pimples on my abdomen to the right of my belly button. They never oozed and are in the process of healing up currently. I had a telemedicine visit with my doctor and they diagnosed me with shingles, mostly with the symptoms being the rash (that doesn’t look like a shingles rash from pictures on the internet) and the skin sensitivity on one side of my body. Another rash of two pimples showed up yesterday on my back in the area of my back that has been sensitive. I have no joint pain, but my back and abdominal muscles were sore for a week or so. I attributed that to playing golf a few times that week and having a cold and coughing a lot the week before.

I had no discharge or pain while urinating. I did take doxycycline (7 days)  starting 7 days after the sex because of a sinus infection. The girl I had sex with got tested for gonorrhea and chlamydia one week ago by urine test and was negative, but she did take a course of amoxicillin clav for a week prior because of a dog bite. She had zero symptoms as well. Could this be disseminated gonorrhea or am I just freaking out for no reason. Should I just listen to my doctor and believe it’s shingles?
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207091 tn?1337709493
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I think you're freaking out.

I can't tell you if you have shingles or not - did they prescribe you anything for that?  - but gonorrhea isn't common, your risk is really low, your partner's risk is really low, so I'd be really surprised if this is DGI.

There are loads of things that cause skin issues, and DGI is not anywhere near the top of the list I'd consider.
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Did not prescribe me anything because it was past the 72 hour from symptoms starting  for antivirals.

I am asking because the symptoms started 4 days after the encounter and rash appeared 8 days later. Would testing even be recommended?

I just know the rash was multiple pimple/ingrown hair like things with red bases. They never oozed/popped. They have been there for 11 days now and haven’t gone away yet. I feel better now and the pain and sensitivity to shirts has gotten better. I don’t have the muscle tightness  as much. I read DGI is less common in males, and symptoms of gonorrhea are more likely in males anyways. Would DGI be something that I’d get better from without the hospital, and just using the 7 days of doxy?
Most people who have DGI don't realize they have DGI and attribute the pain to something else. They don't end up in the hospital unless they are going in for the pain.

DGI is very rare - it only happens in up to 3% of gonorrhea infections, and there were only 616,392 cases of gonorrhea cases in the US. (Comparatively, there were 1,808,703 of chlamydia, though it's suspected many of those go unreported.)

Remember, you are exceedingly low risk, as is your partner. The chances of this being gonorrhea are so slim. Your partner used a condom with the only other partner she's had in the last year.

I'm not sure why you are focused on DGI when shingles could be it, and it's getting better.

I see no reason to test, but if you decide to, wait until you've been off the doxy for at least 2 weeks.
Thank you for your prompt responses. I’m stuck on DGI because of the symptoms shortly after the event. Would DGI come on that quickly? Do men even get it often? If DGI symptoms go unnoticed, does that person still have gonorrhea and can pass it on? Is it a painful rash and is it only in the area of the rash or does it radiate? If there is no ankle or wrist pain is it likely that it’s not DGI anyways? Would the doxy clear the infection even tho it’s not the recommended dose?

And most importantly, would the amoxicillin affect my partners test results for gonorrhea or chlamydia? These are all under the assumption she didn’t lie to me about the condom use and that her partner isn’t lying about her being the only partner since his last std test. That’s why I’m worried. Thank you again for your quick replies.
No one gets DGI often - men or women. It's rare. Gonorrhea is not that common, and DGI is rare - are you following this?

This is a fairly regular partner of yours, correct? Is there any reason to doubt her? It's a lot of lying if she and/or her partner are lying. Someone lied about testing, or condom use, or how many partners they had?

I didn't say DGI goes unnoticed - I said they didn't end up in the hospital, as you said. If it's not treated, yes, they can transmit gonorrhea.

Doxy would not clear it, and that or amox would maybe affect testing. It depends on the dose, the timing, the type of testing - a lot goes into it. To be safe, it's suggested that people wait 2 weeks.

There are a lot of case studies about people only getting joint pain, or only getting a rash. They are exceptions. Remember that it's rare.

It's getting better, right? That suggests it's shingles or something else. If it is DGI (highly, highly unlikely), the doxy could be slowing it down enough to help. That would be in your favor.

All you can do now is wait until it's been 2 weeks since you've been off the doxy, and test so you can put this behind you and let it go. You can try to get one of your sores cultured, but I can't guarantee the accuracy of that.

DGI symptoms don't appear for about 2 weeks. Is this the only time recently that you've been with her? If it is, this can't be DGI. Symptoms came on too soon.



Thank you. Are you also a doctor? I appreciate all your responses. I am following you, but I just thought you said DGI would get better as well without treatment. The skin lesions appeared one week after we had sex. The skin sensitivity came on 4 days after sex. I finished the doxy on Friday. I have felt the sensitivity decrease a lot since then. I would definitely say I’m getting better pain wise. The new lesions on my back in the area of the sensitivity/pain in the past few days is concerning I guess, but it’s not painful by any means. The only time we had sex before this was in late June (3 1/2 months before this), but she hadn’t slept with anyone since December before that.
Disseminated gonococcal infection with just a few skin lesions? Why, that is too long a shot.
No fever, no joint pain - too atypical for a DGI presentation. Risk assessment is not necessary. It is not DGI, and you really should follow what you are being said.
I have a 99.1 ear temperature which is higher than normal for me. It usually reads in the 97-98 range. I have about 8 total lesions (5 on my abdomen and 3 on my back). It all happened a week after unprotected sex with the back lesions appearing 2 1/2 weeks after sex. I did run a 101 ear temp fever 6 days post sex, but I attributed that to a sinus infection o was going through and started 100mg doxy for 7 days after that. Fever subsided with ibuprofen in a few hours.
I appreciate all your help for sure to ease my mind.
A few questions that I still wanted answers for.

1. Would skin lesions appearing a week after unprotected sex not be long enough for it to be DGI?
2. Would amoxicillin/clav taken one month after my partners protected sexual encounter with another male affect her negative test results she received lasr weekend?
3. Would I be feeling better if this was DGI?
4. How long do skin lesions take to disappear after showing up?
5. Are skin lesions on the trunk of the body much rarer than the extremities?
6. Is joint pain in DGI disabling it just an annoyance?
7. Do the fact that I had zero discharge and no painful urination, and she had zero symptoms for a month, and 10 months of zero symptoms from her last unprotected sex partner likely mean this is not DGI?

Sorry for all the questions but you all seem knowledgeable and google has a lot of misleading info
As grobick said, please read what you are being told. We don't ask a lot of our members, but we do expect that you read our responses.

I will answer your questions, but if your partner used a condom, she is not at risk for gonorrhea. If you have a higher temp than your norm, you should talk to your doctor.

I never said DGI gets better without treatment.

1. Would skin lesions appearing a week after unprotected sex not be long enough for it to be DGI?

No. It takes 2 weeks.

2. Would amoxicillin/clav taken one month after my partners protected sexual encounter with another male affect her negative test results she received last weekend?

No, as I've said, testing after 2 weeks after completing antibiotics is fine.

3. Would I be feeling better if this was DGI?

Hard to say - you were on doxy, which would slow it down, though not cure it. However, your partner had a negative test and used a condom, which means you weren't at risk.

4. How long do skin lesions take to disappear after showing up?
5. Are skin lesions on the trunk of the body much rarer than the extremities?
6. Is joint pain in DGI disabling it just an annoyance?

4-6 can be answered by research. These are not specific to your situation.


7. Do the fact that I had zero discharge and no painful urination, and she had zero symptoms for a month, and 10 months of zero symptoms from her last unprotected sex partner likely mean this is not DGI?

Your partner used a condom and had a conclusively negative test. This means you don't have gonorrhea.



Auntiejessi I want to assure you that I am reading each answer and by no means trying to be a pain. I have some emergency medical background and just finding some of the answers confusing so ask in different ways dot clarification.

An example is I am not the one who took amoxicillin, my partner did. She took this for a dog bite 1 month after the sex she had with the other guy. 875mg twice a day for 7 days. I am asking if her negative test results can be conclusive since she took this a week after we had sex, and it was completed when she took the gonorrhea and chlamydia test. In other words, could her taking this have cleared a gonorrhea infection after we had sex and before she took the test?

As far as me asking if DGI gets better without treatment in reference to me feeling better, it was in response to you saying most people who have DGI don’t know it. I figured this meant they got better without treatment.

Sorry for the confusion
I didn't mean they were asymptomatic, just that they didn't attribute their symptoms to gonorrhea.

I have already said that amox won't cure gonorrhea. If she completed her amox two weeks prior to her testing, it wouldn't affect testing. She used a condom, though, so she wasn't at risk for gonorrhea, which means you weren't.

I think that's the point you are missing here - she used a condom with her other partner. ALL of this is irrelevant because she used a condom, meaning she can't get gonorrhea, which means you can't get it.

Since she had no risk for gonorrhea, it makes her test conclusive (and unnecessary).
Thank you for your help
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