These are "what if" question. Non-specific inflammation has many causes other than HPV and is not something to worry about. Her doctor has already told your wife he is not concerned and did not feel the need for special follow-up. It is time for you to stop worrying, deal with your guilt and move on.
Your doctor has the right idea. This is not a big deal. Put it aside and move forward rather than worry about something that probably has NO relationship to your extramarital exposure five years ago. EWH
Hi Dr. Hook,
This is a follow-up to my previous question.
All of my wife's STD tests came back negative (as did mine) but her doctor said she had slight inflammation of her cervix. Her doctor said this could have been due to HPV but saw no reason for follow-up tests and asked my wife to come back in 6 months.
Here are my questions.
1) What could have caused her to have HPV? I have not cheated on her at all and I am extremely confident she has not strayed.
2) The doctor wasn't totally sure she had HPV but didn't think it was a big deal either way. She just thought that was the most likely cause of the inflammation and that the HPV either has passed out of her system or will do so shortly (as the inflammation already seems to have subsided). So does that mean she might not have had HPV? The doctor was very casual about the whole situation.
My wife isn't too concerned anymore either as all the STD tests came back negative but I am honestly surprised HPV is being tossed around at this point as a potential cause.
Please let me know what you think. Thanks!
Welcome back to the Forum. I'll try to help but in reality, what you (an your wife) need is more information about the PAP smear. PAP smears can show many abnormalities or can be inadequate specimens. Rather than try to guess what this phone call could be about, you need to find out the results. Then I may be able to help.
Let me also make a few more comments which I hope will help you get through the weekend:
1. You do not know you got HPV five years ago. There is a good chance you did not.
2. Had you gotten HPV from your exposure over five years ago, you do not know that it would have been transmitted to your wife. Given her multiple negative prior PAP smears, it’s unlikely.
3. If you or your wife ha sexual partners before marriage, if the PAP shows something related to HPV, it could have been from an infection acquire prior to your marriage.
and on, and on...
Finally, related to your questions:
1) Do OBGYN nurses call about pap smear results for reasons other than positive HPV tests? What is the most likely reason they call? It seems like infections are far more likely than HPV.
Of course they do call about things other than HPV-related problems. The list is long and I am not an Ob/Gyn. It does you no good to try to guess.
2) Could I have contracted HPV in 2007 and she test positively for it only
now? I truthfully have not strayed from her, have had multiple STD-negative tests since then, and exhibit no symptoms of having an STD. My wife has had many normal pap smear tests since 2007 until now.
See above. Unlikely.
3) I might be overanalyzing things but my wife did give the nurse permission to discuss her situation on the phone. The nurse didn't sound overly concerned in the voice mail and did not imply something major was wrong. She just asked my wife to call back on Monday to discuss the results of her labwork.
No way to know how to interpret this.
I'll be happy to comment further once you know what the PAP smear showed. In the meantime, I'll not have more to say an you shoul not spend your time worrying. EWH
Also I just want to make clear my wife has taken many pap smears since 2007 with all being fine and we both have tested negatively for all STDs within the past year and annually since 2007; my wife as recently as 12 months ago and me 6 months ago.
This is her first abnormal pap smear thus the freak-out.