The computerized output tagging rSr (V1) merely suggests RBBB that could be partial or complete and requires a more stringent criteria for that dx. Additonally there may be a normal variant involved!?
Consistent with intraventrcular conduction disturbance often is due to an increase in ventricular mass and probably affecting the terminal portion of the right bundle branch (right ventricular dilation). That woud likely be an incomplete RBBB...no RV dilation noted as an abnormality on chart.
Also, for complete RBBB...QRS the measurement is > 0.12 sec; or an abnormal interval for incomplete. Not noted as an abnormality on the chart either.
My comments focused on the "T" wave and low amplitude of the QRS for consideration. Nevertheless it requires further confrimation as does all EKG results. NO ROOM for further as a quoted comment seems an inappropriate and unusual response and can be taken as a dismissal to MisticHeart's question. But may be not!
by RCA7591
, Jan 10, 2008 11:25PM
What does this mean?
^quote
That you have a right ventricular conduction delay. Other than that, there is no room for further comment.
~Ryan
There is no delayed polariztion distinquished in any wave form posted. That's my comment to your no room for further comment.
A decrease in the voltage of QRS tracing shown with the Y axis on the graph is rooted with IR=E meaning it has more to do with current (impulse) and resistance not cap.
Yes, I had my thyroid removed back in 1994 and am on levoxyl.
Thanks,
MysticHeart
Probable normal variant is an abnormality of a wave form but the underlying cause is known, benign and insignificant...such as a result of medication.
Non-specific t wave abnormality. Very common with hypothyroid.
Low QRS voltage. Possibility for hypothyroidism, malnutrition, COPD (lung disorder), pericardial effusion (fluids between outer heart lining and tissue.
An EKG requires further testing and clinical evidence for a diagnosis. Hypothyroidism appears to be a likely dx. Do you have symptoms?