I just received my MRI results and I wanted to know what it meant. It is regarding my right shoulder.
The findings state: The infra and supraspinatus tendons demonstrate thickening and intermediate T2/pronton density signal suggesting tendinopathy without definitive tear. The subscapularis tendon and teres minor tendon are intact. The acromioclavicular joint and glenohumeral joint are normal. The long head of the biceps tendon is normal. No glenoid-labral signal abnormalities are detected. The acromion is type I. The humeral-acromial interval is normal at 7.6 mm. No significant bone marrow signal abnormalitis are detected. The visualized regional muscles are intact.
The impression state: Supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendinopathy with no rotator cuff tendon tear.
The MRI findings reveal tendinopathy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, probably tendinitis, which could be causing some shoulder symptoms. These muscles are 2 of 4 muscles comprising the rotator cuff, which has the function of stabilizing the shoulder as well as elevating and rotating the arm. Based on the findings, there are no muscle tendon tears of the rotator cuff group of muscles.
The tendinopathy, especially if it is a supraspinatus tendinitis, could also be associated with a shoulder impingement syndrome, which could lead to shoulder pain.
I just had an MRI of my right shoulder. It stated i had supra/ infraspinatus tendonopathy, Labral thickening, no definative tear with conventional MRI, adhesive capsulitis, and bursitis. Last night something felt like it popped and felt like fluid was going down my arm. I also have pain when i turn my neck, migraine headaches, and numbness to the right side of my face and neck that comes and goes. my ortho says its not related. what do you think? should i get a second opinion?
hello sir my name is manohar,(male)51 years of age
sir i have a severe pain in my left leg (below knee) along with numbness,tightness,needles n all.since 10 months.i got to know from mri report that i have slipped disc problem in l1-s5 region. after seeing almost 50 doctors,taking their prescribed medicines,doing naturopathy then physio therapy for 5-6 months and what not.i have lost my patience as my pain has increased from before and again i had an mri to check whether there are any improvements after physiotherapy or not but unfortunately result is d same.so plz suggest whether i shud go for surgery or not? is it lifelong cureable?
my mri report highlights as follows-
MRI L-5 spine is performed on high field 1.5 tesla MR sstem using axial T1 & T2 and cronal STIR sequences
-There is straightening of lumber lordotic curvature with maintained vertebral bod alignment
-lumbo-sacral verteberal bodies are normal in height and show marginal osteophytes.Thes endplate schmorl's nodes are seen from L1 TO L4 levels.Marginal type 2 endplate changes are seen at L5-S1
-The L5-S1 disc space is reduced showing disc desiccation as loss of hypertense signal on T2 W1.focal left paracentral disc bulge with posterior and inferior disc migration is seen at L5-S1.The migrated disc measures 10 MM and compressing the left exiting nerve root
-MIld diffuse disc bulge is also noted at L1-L2 without causing any significant nerve root compression.The D12-L1 disc shows desiccation.Rest of the intervertebral discs are grossly normal.
-Bilateral mild ligamentum flavum hypertrophy seen in all lumber levels,however do not contribute significantly in the nerve root compression.the spinal cord,conus medullaris and nerve roots of cauda equina show normal signal intensity.
-Myelogram shows anterior indentation at various lumber levels.
-Posterior osseous and soft tissue structures are normal
-No pre or paraspinal soft tissue abnormality seen
-Coronal STIR sequences show normal sacro-iliac and hip joints
MRI L-S spine shows degenerative spondylotic changes with focal left paracentral disc bulge and posterior and inferior disc migration is seen at L5-S1 causing compression of left exiting nerve root.coronal STIR sequences show normal sacro iliac and hip joints.
Hello. I just had an MRI for my very painful frozen right shoulder and the conclusion is this:
Downsloping acromion with anterior supraspinatus tendinopathy at the anterior distal 2 cm of tendon. Capsulolabral apparatus looks intact but there is moderate posterior subluxation of the humeral articular margin within the gleniod fossa suggesting some instability.
I would really appreciate any help in the interpretation of my MRI results.
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