Ok, i have had two sexual partners in the previous 12 months, regular unprotected sex with a girl, but i also had fully protected sex with a transexual prostitute around 10 weeks ago (last sexual encounter to date).
I had some minor gential discomfort which seemed to pass between having sex with the girl and the prostitute (which was a very short time frame).
The condom spilt with the prostitute whilst i was penetrating, i stopped immeadiatly.
In the weeks following the encounter with the prostitute i had increasingly obvious symptoms of chlamydia.
I tested positive for chlamydia 3 weeks ago and negative for everything else including HIV (test at 7 weeks). I was given Zithromax 1g, which i have previously had before for a single other STD infection a few years ago (also chlamydia). The symptoms of the chlamydia seemed to disappear completely after one week.
However at the end of the 2nd week after treatment i began to get symptoms again. I collected a sample of urine a few times and there is a presence of white mass and often accompanied by a cloudy suspension in the urine, which i assume to be bacteria.
I am to be retested for HIV in 2-3 weeks at the 12 week mark and i will also get tested again for chlamydia.
My question(finally) is... could the possible failure of the zithromax to be effective be due to immunosuppression/HIV infection? Or are antibiotics' effectiveness against chlamydia not related to immunosuppression?
I should also add the for a number of months prior to all this i have had a recurrent oral problem. A small blister-like abcess related to a damaged tooth.
Is it possible that the Zithromax was working on both the chlamydia and oral problem(which uncharacteristically disappeared entirely for 2 weeks) and it decreased the efficacy of the zithromax?
Many Many Thanks in advance!!!