Can it be gonorrhea with just one time urethral discharge?

[Kcamp83]

Hi! 4 weeks ago, a prostitute gave me oral sex without a condom and I finished in her mouth. I felt a little discomfort during the next days and in the fifth night I noticed a whitish discharge from the tip of my penis. I went to the doctor the very next day and he thought it could be gonorrhea, although the discharge was there only one time and I had no test. He gave me a single  500 mg dose of ciprofloxacin and doxycicline 100 mg twice a day for seven days and told me to come again in two weeks to be tested.I did and, and then, he asked for an urine and a sperm culture, which results were negative. But after a couple of days the discomfort grew and I started to feel pain in my testicles. I went to the doctor again and he prescribed more ciprofloxaxin for more than a week. My testicles still hurt. I am worried because I read that the correct treatment for gonorrhea isn't the one that the doctor gave me and that sometime you can be infected and yet the sperm culture be negative.

My question is: although the discharge was only once and it disappeared the next day and being  the cultures negative after the given treatment, can it still be gonorrhea? My doctor says no by I don't know what to believe.

Thank you

[Life360_Dave]

Hi i would agree with the doctor as symptoms would not dissapear the next day after treatment but takes about a week.

[Kcamp83]

Thank you very much for your very quick answer. BTW, the discharge wasn't there the day I went to the doctor the first time. And now he has diagnosed me of epidydimitis and gave me more cipro even though the cultures were negative. I mean, if the bacteria isn't there, why is he prescribing more antibiotics? And if any bacteria is still there, doesn't it mean that the cipro didn't work and the bacteria is resistant? Shouldn't he prescribe a different treatment? But above all, if it wasn't gonorrhea, what could explain the discharge and the current epidydimitis?

[Kcamp83]

Thank you very much for your very quick answer. BTW, the discharge wasn't there the day I went to the doctor the first time. And now he has diagnosed me of epidydimitis and gave me more cipro even though the cultures were negative. I mean, if the bacteria isn't there, why is he prescribing more antibiotics? And if any bacteria is still there, doesn't it mean that the cipro didn't work and the bacteria is resistant? Shouldn't he prescribe a different treatment? But above all, if it wasn't gonorrhea, what could explain the discharge and the current epidydimitis?