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Is syphilis contagious soon after acquiring it? (6 days)

Good evening: I had a no penetrative sex encounter with a man (basically kissing, mutual masturbation, frotting and fingering).
Ten days after the encounter, he phoned me saying he got a syphilis diagnosis.
Now, in the event he infected me (even though no penetration occurred), could I have passed the infection to my usual sex partner I met 6 days after that encounter? (no more sexual intercourses after getting the phone call by that man).
In other words, can a person get syphilis and pass it during the incubation period, with no symptoms at all?
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207091 tn?1337709493
COMMUNITY LEADER
There is no risk for syphilis from kissing, mutual masturbation, and fingering.

When you say frotting - this depends. Assuming you were both unclothed, your genitals would have to come into direct contact with a syphilis sore in order to get it. Do you know if he had a syphilis sore? Was he diagnosed because of symptoms or with a blood test?

Do you have a sore?

If you do not have a sore yet, you are not contagious. This is called the incubation period (the time from infection to symptoms), and syphilis is not infectious during this time. Other STIs are infectious during the incubation period, but syphilis isn't.

If he doesn't know if he had a sore, you should be treated, just in case. The sore is painless, so it's easy to miss if you aren't looking for it.
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Thanks a lot for your reply! He got tested because he noticed a single brownish spot on his hand and a mild rush on gland. He told me his symptoms appeared 3-4 days after our encounter and that he was perfectly fine when we met – I cannot remember whether he had the patch on his palm or not. I don't have any sores (now 35 days from the event, I got tested yesterday and I am now waiting for results).
Okay, if he had a secondary stage rash at the time of your encounter, then you could have gotten it. It sounds like he had it weeks before you met with him.

If you were his source, his first symptom would have been a round sore at the point of entry and that's it. It would have appeared between 10 and 90 days after your encounter, though the average is 3 weeks.

He also wouldn't have tested positive nearly that soon.

I'm not saying he's blaming you - it just helps determine what you need to look for, and when.

Testing at 35 days-ish might be a bit early, though many people test positive by then. Does your doctor know you are testing because you are a known contact?

Yes, but he reckons that without penetrative sex risk is too low to receive epi treatment (I'd like to receive the benzathine shot for my peace of mind). He prefers to wait for results. Can the single penicillin G dose abort a potential infection or, if infection has taken place, it will show in blood test at any case? Thanks!
I see his point, depending on the frottage involved.

A single injection would cure you if you have it since you would be in the first stage. At 35 days, it's too late to abort an infection.

I would probably also want to be treated in your situation. It might only be for peace of mind, but as a known contact, I'd want it. I usually recommend not getting antibiotics you don't need, but since we aren't sure when your partner had the rash, I'd understand getting it.
Seeing the GP today to ask for the pen-G shot again. My biggest concern was I could potentially have spread it on the first five days after the encounter, If I was infected. There's no clear info around on if it's possible to infect immediately after acquiring the bacteria. Thanks a lot Auntiejessi!
You're welcome. I hope it goes well with the doc. Let me know. :)
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