Hi All, the short version is that my partner (female) started experiencing symptoms about 3 weeks ago and tested positive for chlamydia and herpes, and also ‘probable UTI’. I’m male btw.
We have been having unprotected sex in a monogamous relationship for the past 6 months. Both myself and her never exhibited any symptoms until she did just recently.
I guess you can see where my question is going, what are the chances that she had one or both of these STIs all this time and just now experienced symptoms?
Additional info - She was tested twice for chlamydia. The first test was negative, the second was positive. I was tested for chlamydia and it was negative. I have no symptoms whatsoever. Her symptoms manifested shortly after the last time we had sex, a few days after. Her and I have frequent unprotected sex.
I intend to get tested again tomorrow.
I’m asking the question because I’ve called things off with her due to this but am considering getting back together. I asked her if she slept with anyone else and it was an emphatic no.
Anyway, is it at all possible that she had both these STIs for a long time and just now randomly got symptoms of both? She had symptoms of each, smelly discharge, pain urinating, herpes ulcer.
Or does this sound like it is far more probable to be a recent infection?
Oh, also. I’ve had a fair bit of unprotected sex in the last year with various partners (all female). My last STI test was probably about a year ago and it was all clear, as was my recent one from last week. Although I did not test for HSV-2
Is it possible that I had chlamydia without symptoms, passed it to her and then my body cleared the infection on its own? I don’t recall taking any antibiotics in quite some time.
Just as an FYI I intend no harm or retribution towards her I just want to know all the information and probabilities before I decide about getting back together.
Thanks all!