I am not going on with this, you have asked your question and I answered by defering to Dr.HHH's answer that you posted.
If you've forgotten what I asked, read my posting again. I did not realize that I had to repeat the original question in every comment.
What don't i understand? You posted an answer about Dr. HHH and asked nothing along with it. What is there for me to understand?
Dr.HHH is a Dr and I am not, I would have to go along with what he has said on this.
Chlamydia is an STD that can cause epididymitis in men.
Sometimes Chlamydia does show symptoms and sometimes it doesn't.
Is it true that if a man has Chlamydia but no symptoms then the asymptomatic version cannot cause epididymitis, as stated in the last 2 lines of Dr Handsfield's post?
What bit don't you understand?
I saw this on one of the postings from Dr Hunter Handsfield.
See the last 2 lines of his posting.
by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Dec 29, 2005 12:00AM
In general, it is uncommon to acquire any STD by being the insertive partner in fellatio. The greater risk is to the oral partner. Chlamydia of the throat is rare and no case of urethral (penile) chlamydial infection has ever been documented from oral sex; if it occurs, it is too rare to worry much about. Urethral gonorrhea almost always causes noticeable symptoms (discharge, painful urination); absence of those symptoms is strong evidence you didn't acquire gonorrhea, although not definitive. The most common STD acquired by fellatio probably is genital herpes due to HSV-1. Normal bacteria from a partner's mouth can sometimes cause nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), but that kind of NGU probably is harmless both for the infected person and his other sex partner(s)--so there is no need to worry about asymptomatic infection. Syphilis can be transmitted, but generally causes overt, easily recognized symptoms (a sore on the penis 2-6 weeks later). Finally, it is extremely uncommon for HIV to be transmitted by oral exposure of the penis. Also, complications of STD (epididymitis, infertility, etc) do not occur in men in the absence of symptoms.
I read your question. "Is it true that STDs that are silent"...silent...shows no symptoms.
and "no symptoms cannot cause epididymitis in men?" what does this even mean?
I know STDs do not have to show symptoms!
Perhaps you should read the question again.
As you see I have taken on board your comments and kept this in the same thread.
Stop starting new threads, keep all questions on the same thread.
STD's do not have to show symptoms.
You want more info on epididymitis...try posting in uriology.