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epididymitis even a possibility?
Is it possible to have epididymitis, when symptoms are only mild to moderate testicular pain that comes and goes during the day, mild abdominal discomfort that's only really noticeable in the mornings, and a slight redness to the scrotum (although that may have always been there)? The pains that I've had for three months have never been severe enough to keep me from doing anything, or from sleeping, and in general there is no tenderness when washing my groin area, etc.
I'm concerned about having possibly been infected with either of the bacterium that causes chlamydia or gonorrhea from receipt of oral sex nine months ago. I was tested for each three months ago (six months after the oral encounter), and everything came back negative. I am 52 years old, but my mind is racing to conclusions that I had contracted either chlamydia or gonorrhea nine months ago, cleared the infection from my system, but now the bacterium is causing these other health issues. Also, very concerned I could have infected someone during this six-month time period between possible exposure and negative test results. Is any of this even plausible, or would I had to have experienced some kind of symptoms of either STD well in advance of now. I've never seen any discharge, never had any fevers, and never had any cases of pain while urinating.
I'm concerned about having possibly been infected with either of the bacterium that causes chlamydia or gonorrhea from receipt of oral sex nine months ago. I was tested for each three months ago (six months after the oral encounter), and everything came back negative. I am 52 years old, but my mind is racing to conclusions that I had contracted either chlamydia or gonorrhea nine months ago, cleared the infection from my system, but now the bacterium is causing these other health issues. Also, very concerned I could have infected someone during this six-month time period between possible exposure and negative test results. Is any of this even plausible, or would I had to have experienced some kind of symptoms of either STD well in advance of now. I've never seen any discharge, never had any fevers, and never had any cases of pain while urinating.
Forgot to mention, also feels like I'm sitting on something (like a rolled up towel) at times, or that my underwear or jeans are just too tight in the groin or crotch area; in addition, diagnosed by my internist with swollen prostate after digital exam.
Symptoms currently are: discomfort and mild pain in my lower abdomen, groin, testicles and tip of penis that comes and goes during the day (worse at the end of the day, better in the mornings); feeling of heaviness or swelling in my scrotum, although no apparent swelling by observation, scrotum appears to be pink to red (although it may have always been like that -- never looked closely before); NO discharge ever noticed; NO pain when urinating; NO tenderness of the testicles when washing vigorously in the shower; NO pain in testicles when running, walking, etc. Pain and discomfort has never been enough to keep me from sleeping or keep me from being able to do daily routine.
I appreciate your interest and help.
I appreciate your interest and help.
I've read a lot of places that epididymitis can be caused by the spread of the same bacteria that causes chlamydia and gonorrhea to the epididymis, causing inflammation and pain. In others, I read it can be caused by other bacteria, such as E Coli., but my fear is that mine might be coming from sexually acquired bacteria.
Is this not correct?
Is this not correct?
What do u mean by the becteria moved to other parts of the body ?
Who told you that ?
Who told you that ?
Had a full STD panel done six months after the encounter. Results were negative for everything. My main fear is that even though I tested negative at the six month mark, could an infection, like chlamydia or gonorrhea, have cleared on its own, but the bacteria that causes those infections has moved to other parts of the body by now, and is causing epididymitis in me?
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