Here is my situation. About four years ago I slept with a person without protection. The following year I went for a pap smear and everything came back nornal. Since then I have gotten married and been faithful in my relationship. I have not experienced any of the outward symptoms, expect on some occasions there is pain during sex when my husband first enters me. My husband last month was treated for epididymitis and was given antibiotics, but the doctors never ran a STD test on him. His blood test and urine test showed nor infection, but the doctor believed that it could be a localized infection. Could I have possibly have had chlamydia for three years and not know it and why wouldn't the doctor give him a test for STDs? Since reading about the Chlamydia and PID I have become very concerned and went to get tested for Chlamydia and Gonorreha (waiting on results). I guess my question is could I have PID and or Chlamydia for these many years without having any noticeable symptoms? My husband and I are planning on starting a family so I would like to know my chances of having fertility problems in the future.
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