fairly repetitive, but I am just trying to help her. My friend slept with 2 guys one on a wednesday and the other I believe she slept with for four full days from the saturday of that same week to the next Wednesday. The one on the Wednesday was 3 days after her period and he didn't ejaculate in her, but the one on the saturday ejaculated on all four days in her. They usually say that ovulation is from day 14 but in my experience one can get pregnant at any given time in their cycle, but given that the man she slept with the most ejaculated in her on her most fertile days, would he most likely be the father of her child compared to the man who didn't ejaculate in her? Confusing if you ask me, but basically one came inside her when she was most likely ovulating and the other didn't come inside her when she wasn't ovulating anyway. Can an experienced, non-biased mature person answer this question please? Thank you
It is certainly more likely by a ways, for it to be the second guy. But if she slept with someone three days after her period ended, he still has to remain a candidate. Some women do ovulate as early as day 8 from the first day of their period, and sperm can live in the woman's body for four to five days after the sexual activity. Unfortunately, him not ejaculating in her vagina is not enough for certainty, unless he was also wearing a condom.
So, chances are, as you already say, that the one with whom she had a lot of unprotected sex at mid-cycle is the daddy. But a DNA test is going to be needed to be sure.
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